{
  "index": "1992-A-4",
  "type": "ANA",
  "tag": [
    "ANA",
    "ALG"
  ],
  "difficulty": "",
  "question": "defined on the real numbers. If\n\\[\nf\\left( \\frac{1}{n} \\right) = \\frac{n^2}{n^2 + 1}, \\qquad n = 1, 2, 3, \\dots,\n\\]\ncompute the values of the derivatives $f^{(k)}(0), k = 1, 2, 3, \\dots$.",
  "solution": "Solution. Let \\( g(x)=1 /\\left(1+x^{2}\\right) \\) and \\( h(x)=f(x)-g(x) \\). The value of \\( g^{(k)}(0) \\) is \\( k! \\) times the coefficient of \\( x^{k} \\) in the Taylor series \\( 1 /\\left(1+x^{2}\\right)=\\sum_{m=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{m} x^{2 m} \\), and the value of \\( h^{(k)}(0) \\) is zero by the lemma below (which arguably is the main content of this problem). Thus\n\\[\nf^{(k)}(0)=g^{(k)}(0)+h^{(k)}(0)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\n(-1)^{k / 2} k! & \\text { if } k \\text { is even; } \\\\\n0 & \\text { if } k \\text { is odd }\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nLemma. Suppose \\( h \\) is an infinitely differentiable real-valued function defined on the real numbers such that \\( h(1 / n)=0 \\) for \\( n=1,2,3, \\ldots \\). Then \\( h^{(k)}(0)=0 \\) for all nonnegative integers \\( k \\).\n\nThis lemma can be proved in many ways (and is a special case of a more general result stating that if \\( h: \\mathbb{R} \\rightarrow \\mathbb{R} \\) is infinitely differentiable, if \\( k \\geq 0 \\), and if \\( a \\in \\mathbb{R} \\), then \\( h^{(k)}(a) \\) is determined by the values of \\( h \\) on any sequence of distinct real numbers tending to \\( a) \\).\n\nProof 1 (Rolle's Theorem). Since \\( h(x)=0 \\) for a sequence of values of \\( x \\) strictly decreasing to \\( 0, h(0)=0 \\). By Rolle's Theorem, \\( h^{\\prime}(x) \\) has zeros between the zeros of \\( h(x) \\); hence \\( h^{\\prime}(x)=0 \\) for a sequence strictly decreasing to 0 , so \\( h^{\\prime}(0)=0 \\). Repeating this argument inductively, with \\( h^{(n)}(x) \\) playing the role of \\( h(x) \\), proves the lemma.\n\nProof 2 (Taylor's Formula). We prove that \\( h^{(n)}(0)=0 \\) by induction. The \\( n=0 \\) case follows as in the previous proof, by continuity. Now assume that \\( n>0 \\), and \\( h^{(k)}(0)=0 \\) is known for \\( k<n \\). Recall Taylor's Formula (Lagrange's form, see e.g. [Ap1, Section 7.7]) which states that for any \\( x>0 \\) and integer \\( n>0 \\), there exists \\( \\theta_{n} \\in[0, x] \\) such that\n\\[\nh(x)=h(0)+h^{\\prime}(0) x+\\cdots+h^{(n-1)}(0) x^{n-1} /(n-1)!+h^{(n)}\\left(\\theta_{n}\\right) x^{n} / n!.\n\\]\n\nBy our inductive hypothesis,\n\\[\nh(0)=\\cdots=h^{(n-1)}(0)=0\n\\]\n\nHence by taking \\( x=1,1 / 2,1 / 3, \\ldots \\), we get \\( h^{(n)}\\left(\\theta_{m}\\right)=0 \\), where \\( 0 \\leq \\theta_{m} \\leq 1 / m \\). But \\( \\lim _{m \\rightarrow \\infty} \\theta_{m}=0 \\), so by continuity \\( h^{(n)}(0)=0 \\).\n\nProof 3 (J. P. Grossman). By continuity, \\( h(0)=0 \\). Let \\( k \\) be the smallest nonnegative integer such that \\( h^{(k)}(0) \\neq 0 \\). We assume \\( h^{(k)}(0)>0 \\); the same argument applies if \\( h^{(k)}(0)<0 \\). Then there exists \\( \\epsilon \\) such that \\( h^{(k)}(x)>0 \\) on \\( (0, \\epsilon] \\). Repeated integration shows that \\( h(x)>0 \\) on ( \\( 0, \\epsilon] \\), a contradiction.\n\nProof 4 sketch (explicit computation). By definition,\n\\[\nh^{\\prime}(0)=\\lim _{\\epsilon \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{f(\\epsilon)-f(0)}{\\epsilon} .\n\\]\n\nMore generally, if \\( h \\) is infinitely differentiable in a neighborhood of 0 , then\n\\[\nh^{(k)}(0)=\\lim _{\\epsilon \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{\\sum_{j=0}^{k}\\binom{k}{j}(-1)^{k-j} h(j \\epsilon)}{\\epsilon^{k}}\n\\]\n(This can be proved by applying L'Hôpital's Rule \\( k \\) times to the expression on the right.) Then choose \\( \\epsilon=1 / n \\) where \\( n \\) runs over the multiples of \\( \\operatorname{lcm}(1, \\ldots, k) \\), to obtain \\( h^{(k)}(x)=0 \\).\n\nRemark. The formula (1) holds under the weaker assumption that \\( h^{(k)}(0) \\) exists. To prove this, apply L'Hôpital's Rule \\( k-1 \\) times, and then write the resulting expression as a combination of limits of the form\n\\[\n\\lim _{\\epsilon \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{h^{(k-1)}(j \\epsilon)-h^{(k-1)}(0)}{j \\epsilon}\n\\]\neach of which equals \\( h^{(k)}(0) \\), by definition.\nRemark. Note that \\( h(x) \\) need not be the zero function! An infinitely differentiable function need not be represented by its Taylor series at a point, i.e., it need not be analytic. For example, consider\n\\[\nh(x)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\ne^{-1 / x^{2}} \\sin (\\pi / x) & \\text { for } x \\neq 0 \\\\\n0 & \\text { for } x=0\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nIt is infinitely differentiable for all \\( x \\), and all of its derivatives are 0 at \\( x=0 \\). (It satisfies the hypotheses of the lemma!)",
  "vars": [
    "f",
    "g",
    "h",
    "x",
    "n",
    "k",
    "m",
    "j",
    "a",
    "\\\\theta_n",
    "\\\\theta_m",
    "\\\\epsilon"
  ],
  "params": [],
  "sci_consts": [
    "e"
  ],
  "variants": {
    "descriptive_long": {
      "map": {
        "f": "mysteryfunct",
        "g": "helperfunct",
        "h": "auxiliaryfunct",
        "x": "realinput",
        "n": "posinteger",
        "k": "orderindex",
        "m": "seriesindex",
        "j": "innerindex",
        "a": "realpoint",
        "\\theta_n": "angleparam",
        "\\theta_m": "anglesecond",
        "\\epsilon": "smallposit"
      },
      "question": "defined on the real numbers. If\n\\[\nmysteryfunct\\left( \\frac{1}{posinteger} \\right) = \\frac{posinteger^2}{posinteger^2 + 1}, \\qquad posinteger = 1, 2, 3, \\dots,\n\\]\ncompute the values of the derivatives $mysteryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0), orderindex = 1, 2, 3, \\dots$.",
      "solution": "Solution. Let \\( helperfunct(realinput)=1 /\\left(1+realinput^{2}\\right) \\) and \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput)=mysteryfunct(realinput)-helperfunct(realinput) \\). The value of \\( helperfunct^{(orderindex)}(0) \\) is \\( orderindex! \\) times the coefficient of \\( realinput^{orderindex} \\) in the Taylor series \\( 1 /\\left(1+realinput^{2}\\right)=\\sum_{seriesindex=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{seriesindex} realinput^{2 seriesindex} \\), and the value of \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0) \\) is zero by the lemma below (which arguably is the main content of this problem). Thus\n\\[\nmysteryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)=helperfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)+auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\n(-1)^{orderindex / 2} orderindex! & \\text { if } orderindex \\text { is even; } \\\\\n0 & \\text { if } orderindex \\text { is odd }\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nLemma. Suppose \\( auxiliaryfunct \\) is an infinitely differentiable real-valued function defined on the real numbers such that \\( auxiliaryfunct(1 / posinteger)=0 \\) for \\( posinteger=1,2,3, \\ldots \\). Then \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)=0 \\) for all nonnegative integers \\( orderindex \\).\n\nThis lemma can be proved in many ways (and is a special case of a more general result stating that if \\( auxiliaryfunct: \\mathbb{R} \\rightarrow \\mathbb{R} \\) is infinitely differentiable, if \\( orderindex \\geq 0 \\), and if \\( realpoint \\in \\mathbb{R} \\), then \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(realpoint) \\) is determined by the values of \\( auxiliaryfunct \\) on any sequence of distinct real numbers tending to \\( realpoint) \\).\n\nProof 1 (Rolle's Theorem). Since \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput)=0 \\) for a sequence of values of \\( realinput \\) strictly decreasing to \\( 0, auxiliaryfunct(0)=0 \\). By Rolle's Theorem, \\( auxiliaryfunct^{\\prime}(realinput) \\) has zeros between the zeros of \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput) \\); hence \\( auxiliaryfunct^{\\prime}(realinput)=0 \\) for a sequence strictly decreasing to 0 , so \\( auxiliaryfunct^{\\prime}(0)=0 \\). Repeating this argument inductively, with \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger)}(realinput) \\) playing the role of \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput) \\), proves the lemma.\n\nProof 2 (Taylor's Formula). We prove that \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger)}(0)=0 \\) by induction. The \\( posinteger=0 \\) case follows as in the previous proof, by continuity. Now assume that \\( posinteger>0 \\), and \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)=0 \\) is known for \\( orderindex<posinteger \\). Recall Taylor's Formula (Lagrange's form, see e.g. [Ap1, Section 7.7]) which states that for any \\( realinput>0 \\) and integer \\( posinteger>0 \\), there exists \\( angleparam \\in[0, realinput] \\) such that\n\\[\nauxiliaryfunct(realinput)=auxiliaryfunct(0)+auxiliaryfunct^{\\prime}(0) realinput+\\cdots+auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger-1)}(0) realinput^{posinteger-1}/(posinteger-1)!+auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger)}\\left(angleparam\\right) realinput^{posinteger} / posinteger!.\n\\]\nBy our inductive hypothesis,\n\\[\nauxiliaryfunct(0)=\\cdots=auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger-1)}(0)=0\n\\]\nHence by taking \\( realinput=1,1 / 2,1 / 3, \\ldots \\), we get \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger)}\\left(anglesecond\\right)=0 \\), where \\( 0 \\leq anglesecond \\leq 1 / seriesindex \\). But \\( \\lim _{seriesindex \\rightarrow \\infty} anglesecond=0 \\), so by continuity \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(posinteger)}(0)=0 \\).\n\nProof 3 (J. P. Grossman). By continuity, \\( auxiliaryfunct(0)=0 \\). Let \\( orderindex \\) be the smallest nonnegative integer such that \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0) \\neq 0 \\). We assume \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)>0 \\); the same argument applies if \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)<0 \\). Then there exists \\( smallposit \\) such that \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(realinput)>0 \\) on \\( (0, smallposit] \\). Repeated integration shows that \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput)>0 \\) on ( \\( 0, smallposit] \\), a contradiction.\n\nProof 4 sketch (explicit computation). By definition,\n\\[\nauxiliaryfunct^{\\prime}(0)=\\lim _{smallposit \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{mysteryfunct(smallposit)-mysteryfunct(0)}{smallposit} .\n\\]\nMore generally, if \\( auxiliaryfunct \\) is infinitely differentiable in a neighborhood of 0 , then\n\\[\nauxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0)=\\lim _{smallposit \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{\\sum_{innerindex=0}^{orderindex}\\binom{orderindex}{innerindex}(-1)^{orderindex-innerindex} auxiliaryfunct(innerindex \\, smallposit)}{smallposit^{orderindex}}\n\\]\n(This can be proved by applying L'Hôpital's Rule \\( orderindex \\) times to the expression on the right.) Then choose \\( smallposit=1 / posinteger \\) where \\( posinteger \\) runs over the multiples of \\( \\operatorname{lcm}(1, \\ldots, orderindex) \\), to obtain \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(realinput)=0 \\).\n\nRemark. The formula (1) holds under the weaker assumption that \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0) \\) exists. To prove this, apply L'Hôpital's Rule \\( orderindex-1 \\) times, and then write the resulting expression as a combination of limits of the form\n\\[\n\\lim _{smallposit \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex-1)}(innerindex \\, smallposit)-auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex-1)}(0)}{innerindex \\, smallposit}\n\\]\neach of which equals \\( auxiliaryfunct^{(orderindex)}(0) \\), by definition.\n\nRemark. Note that \\( auxiliaryfunct(realinput) \\) need not be the zero function! An infinitely differentiable function need not be represented by its Taylor series at a point, i.e., it need not be analytic. For example, consider\n\\[\nauxiliaryfunct(realinput)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\ne^{-1 / realinput^{2}} \\sin (\\pi / realinput) & \\text { for } realinput \\neq 0 \\\\\n0 & \\text { for } realinput=0\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nIt is infinitely differentiable for all \\( realinput \\), and all of its derivatives are 0 at \\( realinput=0 \\). (It satisfies the hypotheses of the lemma!)"
    },
    "descriptive_long_confusing": {
      "map": {
        "f": "riverbend",
        "g": "moonshadow",
        "h": "stardusts",
        "x": "lanterns",
        "n": "sunflower",
        "k": "driftwood",
        "m": "snowflake",
        "j": "blueberry",
        "a": "lighthouse",
        "\\\\theta_n": "quartzglow",
        "\\\\theta_m": "silktrail",
        "\\\\epsilon": "copperleaf"
      },
      "question": "defined on the real numbers. If\n\\[\nriverbend\\left( \\frac{1}{sunflower} \\right) = \\frac{sunflower^{2}}{sunflower^{2} + 1}, \\qquad sunflower = 1, 2, 3, \\dots,\n\\]\ncompute the values of the derivatives $riverbend^{(driftwood)}(0), driftwood = 1, 2, 3, \\dots$.",
      "solution": "Solution. Let \\( moonshadow(lanterns)=1 /\\left(1+lanterns^{2}\\right) \\) and \\( stardusts(lanterns)=riverbend(lanterns)-moonshadow(lanterns) \\). The value of \\( moonshadow^{(driftwood)}(0) \\) is \\( driftwood! \\) times the coefficient of \\( lanterns^{driftwood} \\) in the Taylor series \\( 1 /\\left(1+lanterns^{2}\\right)=\\sum_{snowflake=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{snowflake} lanterns^{2 snowflake} \\), and the value of \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0) \\) is zero by the lemma below (which arguably is the main content of this problem). Thus\n\\[\nriverbend^{(driftwood)}(0)=moonshadow^{(driftwood)}(0)+stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\n(-1)^{driftwood / 2} driftwood! & \\text { if } driftwood \\text { is even; } \\\\\n0 & \\text { if } driftwood \\text { is odd }\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nLemma. Suppose \\( stardusts \\) is an infinitely differentiable real-valued function defined on the real numbers such that \\( stardusts(1 / sunflower)=0 \\) for \\( sunflower=1,2,3, \\ldots \\). Then \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)=0 \\) for all nonnegative integers \\( driftwood \\).\n\nThis lemma can be proved in many ways (and is a special case of a more general result stating that if \\( stardusts: \\mathbb{R} \\rightarrow \\mathbb{R} \\) is infinitely differentiable, if \\( driftwood \\geq 0 \\), and if \\( lighthouse \\in \\mathbb{R} \\), then \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(lighthouse) \\) is determined by the values of \\( stardusts \\) on any sequence of distinct real numbers tending to \\( lighthouse) \\).\n\nProof 1 (Rolle's Theorem). Since \\( stardusts(lanterns)=0 \\) for a sequence of values of \\( lanterns \\) strictly decreasing to \\( 0, stardusts(0)=0 \\). By Rolle's Theorem, \\( stardusts^{\\prime}(lanterns) \\) has zeros between the zeros of \\( stardusts(lanterns) \\); hence \\( stardusts^{\\prime}(lanterns)=0 \\) for a sequence strictly decreasing to 0 , so \\( stardusts^{\\prime}(0)=0 \\). Repeating this argument inductively, with \\( stardusts^{(sunflower)}(lanterns) \\) playing the role of \\( stardusts(lanterns) \\), proves the lemma.\n\nProof 2 (Taylor's Formula). We prove that \\( stardusts^{(sunflower)}(0)=0 \\) by induction. The \\( sunflower=0 \\) case follows as in the previous proof, by continuity. Now assume that \\( sunflower>0 \\), and \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)=0 \\) is known for \\( driftwood<sunflower \\). Recall Taylor's Formula (Lagrange's form, see e.g. [Ap1, Section 7.7]) which states that for any \\( lanterns>0 \\) and integer \\( sunflower>0 \\), there exists \\( quartzglow \\in[0, lanterns] \\) such that\n\\[\nstardusts(lanterns)=stardusts(0)+stardusts^{\\prime}(0) lanterns+\\cdots+stardusts^{(sunflower-1)}(0) lanterns^{sunflower-1} /(sunflower-1)!+stardusts^{(sunflower)}\\left(quartzglow\\right) lanterns^{sunflower} / sunflower!.\n\\]\n\nBy our inductive hypothesis,\n\\[\nstardusts(0)=\\cdots=stardusts^{(sunflower-1)}(0)=0\n\\]\n\nHence by taking \\( lanterns=1,1 / 2,1 / 3, \\ldots \\), we get \\( stardusts^{(sunflower)}\\left(silktrail\\right)=0 \\), where \\( 0 \\leq silktrail \\leq 1 / sunflower \\). But \\( \\lim _{snowflake \\rightarrow \\infty} silktrail=0 \\), so by continuity \\( stardusts^{(sunflower)}(0)=0 \\).\n\nProof 3 (J. P. Grossman). By continuity, \\( stardusts(0)=0 \\). Let \\( driftwood \\) be the smallest nonnegative integer such that \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0) \\neq 0 \\). We assume \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)>0 \\); the same argument applies if \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)<0 \\). Then there exists \\( copperleaf \\) such that \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(lanterns)>0 \\) on \\( (0, copperleaf] \\). Repeated integration shows that \\( stardusts(lanterns)>0 \\) on ( \\( 0, copperleaf] \\), a contradiction.\n\nProof 4 sketch (explicit computation). By definition,\n\\[\nstardusts^{\\prime}(0)=\\lim _{copperleaf \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{riverbend(copperleaf)-riverbend(0)}{copperleaf} .\n\\]\n\nMore generally, if \\( stardusts \\) is infinitely differentiable in a neighborhood of 0 , then\n\\[\nstardusts^{(driftwood)}(0)=\\lim _{copperleaf \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{\\sum_{blueberry=0}^{driftwood} \\binom{driftwood}{blueberry} (-1)^{driftwood-blueberry} stardusts(blueberry copperleaf)}{copperleaf^{driftwood}}\n\\]\n(This can be proved by applying L'H\\^opital's Rule \\( driftwood \\) times to the expression on the right.) Then choose \\( copperleaf=1 / sunflower \\) where \\( sunflower \\) runs over the multiples of \\( \\operatorname{lcm}(1, \\ldots, driftwood) \\), to obtain \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(lanterns)=0 \\).\n\nRemark. The formula (1) holds under the weaker assumption that \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0) \\) exists. To prove this, apply L'H\\^opital's Rule \\( driftwood-1 \\) times, and then write the resulting expression as a combination of limits of the form\n\\[\n\\lim _{copperleaf \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{stardusts^{(driftwood-1)}(blueberry copperleaf)-stardusts^{(driftwood-1)}(0)}{blueberry copperleaf}\n\\]\neach of which equals \\( stardusts^{(driftwood)}(0) \\), by definition.\n\nRemark. Note that \\( stardusts(lanterns) \\) need not be the zero function! An infinitely differentiable function need not be represented by its Taylor series at a point, i.e., it need not be analytic. For example, consider\n\\[\nstardusts(lanterns)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\ne^{-1 / lanterns^{2}} \\sin (\\pi / lanterns) & \\text { for } lanterns \\neq 0 \\\\\n0 & \\text { for } lanterns=0\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nIt is infinitely differentiable for all \\( lanterns \\), and all of its derivatives are 0 at \\( lanterns=0 \\). (It satisfies the hypotheses of the lemma!)"
    },
    "descriptive_long_misleading": {
      "map": {
        "f": "steadyconstant",
        "g": "unstablevariant",
        "h": "rigidzero",
        "x": "fixedpoint",
        "n": "continuouselement",
        "k": "integrationcount",
        "m": "steadystate",
        "j": "totality",
        "a": "unchanging",
        "\\theta_n": "vastdistance",
        "\\theta_m": "hugedistance",
        "\\epsilon": "largespread"
      },
      "question": "defined on the real numbers. If\n\\[\nsteadyconstant\\left( \\frac{1}{continuouselement} \\right) = \\frac{continuouselement^2}{continuouselement^2 + 1}, \\qquad continuouselement = 1, 2, 3, \\dots,\n\\]\ncompute the values of the derivatives $steadyconstant^{(integrationcount)}(0), integrationcount = 1, 2, 3, \\dots$.",
      "solution": "Solution. Let \\( unstablevariant(fixedpoint)=1 /\\left(1+fixedpoint^{2}\\right) \\) and \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint)=steadyconstant(fixedpoint)-unstablevariant(fixedpoint) \\). The value of \\( unstablevariant^{(integrationcount)}(0) \\) is \\( integrationcount! \\) times the coefficient of \\( fixedpoint^{integrationcount} \\) in the Taylor series \\( 1 /\\left(1+fixedpoint^{2}\\right)=\\sum_{steadystate=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{steadystate} fixedpoint^{2\\,steadystate} \\), and the value of \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0) \\) is zero by the lemma below (which arguably is the main content of this problem). Thus\n\\[\nsteadyconstant^{(integrationcount)}(0)=unstablevariant^{(integrationcount)}(0)+rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\n(-1)^{integrationcount / 2} integrationcount! & \\text { if } integrationcount \\text { is even; } \\\\\n0 & \\text { if } integrationcount \\text { is odd }\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nLemma. Suppose \\( rigidzero \\) is an infinitely differentiable real-valued function defined on the real numbers such that \\( rigidzero(1 / continuouselement)=0 \\) for \\( continuouselement=1,2,3, \\ldots \\). Then \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)=0 \\) for all nonnegative integers \\( integrationcount \\).\n\nThis lemma can be proved in many ways (and is a special case of a more general result stating that if \\( rigidzero: \\mathbb{R} \\rightarrow \\mathbb{R} \\) is infinitely differentiable, if \\( integrationcount \\geq 0 \\), and if \\( unchanging \\in \\mathbb{R} \\), then \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(unchanging) \\) is determined by the values of \\( rigidzero \\) on any sequence of distinct real numbers tending to \\( unchanging) \\).\n\nProof 1 (Rolle's Theorem). Since \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint)=0 \\) for a sequence of values of \\( fixedpoint \\) strictly decreasing to \\( 0, rigidzero(0)=0 \\). By Rolle's Theorem, \\( rigidzero^{\\prime}(fixedpoint) \\) has zeros between the zeros of \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint) \\); hence \\( rigidzero^{\\prime}(fixedpoint)=0 \\) for a sequence strictly decreasing to 0 , so \\( rigidzero^{\\prime}(0)=0 \\). Repeating this argument inductively, with \\( rigidzero^{(continuouselement)}(fixedpoint) \\) playing the role of \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint) \\), proves the lemma.\n\nProof 2 (Taylor's Formula). We prove that \\( rigidzero^{(continuouselement)}(0)=0 \\) by induction. The \\( continuouselement=0 \\) case follows as in the previous proof, by continuity. Now assume that \\( continuouselement>0 \\), and \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)=0 \\) is known for \\( integrationcount<continuouselement \\). Recall Taylor's Formula (Lagrange's form, see e.g. [Ap1, Section 7.7]) which states that for any \\( fixedpoint>0 \\) and integer \\( continuouselement>0 \\), there exists \\( vastdistance \\in[0, fixedpoint] \\) such that\n\\[\nrigidzero(fixedpoint)=rigidzero(0)+rigidzero^{\\prime}(0)\\,fixedpoint+\\cdots+rigidzero^{(continuouselement-1)}(0)\\,fixedpoint^{continuouselement-1}/(continuouselement-1)!+rigidzero^{(continuouselement)}\\left(vastdistance\\right)\\,fixedpoint^{continuouselement}/continuouselement!.\n\\]\n\nBy our inductive hypothesis,\n\\[\nrigidzero(0)=\\cdots=rigidzero^{(continuouselement-1)}(0)=0\n\\]\n\nHence by taking \\( fixedpoint=1,1 / 2,1 / 3, \\ldots \\), we get \\( rigidzero^{(continuouselement)}\\left(hugedistance\\right)=0 \\), where \\( 0 \\leq hugedistance \\leq 1 / steadystate \\). But \\( \\lim _{steadystate \\rightarrow \\infty} hugedistance=0 \\), so by continuity \\( rigidzero^{(continuouselement)}(0)=0 \\).\n\nProof 3 (J. P. Grossman). By continuity, \\( rigidzero(0)=0 \\). Let \\( integrationcount \\) be the smallest nonnegative integer such that \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0) \\neq 0 \\). We assume \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)>0 \\); the same argument applies if \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)<0 \\). Then there exists \\( largespread \\) such that \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(fixedpoint)>0 \\) on \\( (0, largespread] \\). Repeated integration shows that \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint)>0 \\) on \\( (0, largespread] \\), a contradiction.\n\nProof 4 sketch (explicit computation). By definition,\n\\[\nrigidzero^{\\prime}(0)=\\lim _{largespread \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{steadyconstant(largespread)-steadyconstant(0)}{largespread} .\n\\]\n\nMore generally, if \\( rigidzero \\) is infinitely differentiable in a neighborhood of 0 , then\n\\[\nrigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0)=\\lim _{largespread \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{\\sum_{totality=0}^{integrationcount}\\binom{integrationcount}{totality}(-1)^{integrationcount-totality} rigidzero(totality \\, largespread)}{largespread^{integrationcount}}\n\\]\n(This can be proved by applying L'Hôpital's Rule \\( integrationcount \\) times to the expression on the right.) Then choose \\( largespread=1 / continuouselement \\) where \\( continuouselement \\) runs over the multiples of \\( \\operatorname{lcm}(1, \\ldots, integrationcount) \\), to obtain \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(fixedpoint)=0 \\).\n\nRemark. The formula (1) holds under the weaker assumption that \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0) \\) exists. To prove this, apply L'Hôpital's Rule \\( integrationcount-1 \\) times, and then write the resulting expression as a combination of limits of the form\n\\[\n\\lim _{largespread \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{rigidzero^{(integrationcount-1)}(totality \\, largespread)-rigidzero^{(integrationcount-1)}(0)}{totality \\, largespread}\n\\]\n each of which equals \\( rigidzero^{(integrationcount)}(0) \\), by definition.\n\nRemark. Note that \\( rigidzero(fixedpoint) \\) need not be the zero function! An infinitely differentiable function need not be represented by its Taylor series at a point, i.e., it need not be analytic. For example, consider\n\\[\nrigidzero(fixedpoint)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\ne^{-1 / fixedpoint^{2}} \\sin (\\pi / fixedpoint) & \\text { for } fixedpoint \\neq 0 \\\\\n0 & \\text { for } fixedpoint=0\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nIt is infinitely differentiable for all \\( fixedpoint \\), and all of its derivatives are 0 at \\( fixedpoint=0 \\). (It satisfies the hypotheses of the lemma!)"
    },
    "garbled_string": {
      "map": {
        "f": "qzxwvtnp",
        "g": "hjgrksla",
        "h": "mnpqrstu",
        "x": "vwxyzabc",
        "n": "lkjhgfdsa",
        "k": "poiuytrew",
        "m": "zxcvbnmlk",
        "j": "asdfghjkl",
        "a": "qwertyuio",
        "\\theta_n": "plmoknijb",
        "\\theta_m": "qazwsxedc",
        "\\epsilon": "rfvtgbyhn"
      },
      "question": "defined on the real numbers. If\n\\[\nqzxwvtnp\\left( \\frac{1}{lkjhgfdsa} \\right) = \\frac{lkjhgfdsa^2}{lkjhgfdsa^2 + 1}, \\qquad lkjhgfdsa = 1, 2, 3, \\dots,\n\\]\ncompute the values of the derivatives $qzxwvtnp^{(poiuytrew)}(0), poiuytrew = 1, 2, 3, \\dots$.",
      "solution": "Solution. Let \\( hjgrksla(vwxyzabc)=1 /\\left(1+vwxyzabc^{2}\\right) \\) and \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc)=qzxwvtnp(vwxyzabc)-hjgrksla(vwxyzabc) \\). The value of \\( hjgrksla^{(poiuytrew)}(0) \\) is \\( poiuytrew! \\) times the coefficient of \\( vwxyzabc^{poiuytrew} \\) in the Taylor series \\( 1 /\\left(1+vwxyzabc^{2}\\right)=\\sum_{zxcvbnmlk=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{zxcvbnmlk} vwxyzabc^{2 zxcvbnmlk} \\), and the value of \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0) \\) is zero by the lemma below (which arguably is the main content of this problem). Thus\n\\[\nqzxwvtnp^{(poiuytrew)}(0)=hjgrksla^{(poiuytrew)}(0)+mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\n(-1)^{poiuytrew / 2} poiuytrew! & \\text { if } poiuytrew \\text { is even; } \\\\\n0 & \\text { if } poiuytrew \\text { is odd }\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]\n\nLemma. Suppose \\( mnpqrstu \\) is an infinitely differentiable real-valued function defined on the real numbers such that \\( mnpqrstu(1 / lkjhgfdsa)=0 \\) for \\( lkjhgfdsa=1,2,3, \\ldots \\). Then \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)=0 \\) for all nonnegative integers \\( poiuytrew \\).\n\nThis lemma can be proved in many ways (and is a special case of a more general result stating that if \\( mnpqrstu: \\mathbb{R} \\rightarrow \\mathbb{R} \\) is infinitely differentiable, if \\( poiuytrew \\geq 0 \\), and if \\( qwertyuio \\in \\mathbb{R} \\), then \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(qwertyuio) \\) is determined by the values of \\( mnpqrstu \\) on any sequence of distinct real numbers tending to \\( qwertyuio) \\).\n\nProof 1 (Rolle's Theorem). Since \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc)=0 \\) for a sequence of values of \\( vwxyzabc \\) strictly decreasing to 0, mnpqrstu(0)=0. By Rolle's Theorem, \\( mnpqrstu^{\\prime}(vwxyzabc) \\) has zeros between the zeros of \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc) \\); hence \\( mnpqrstu^{\\prime}(vwxyzabc)=0 \\) for a sequence strictly decreasing to 0 , so \\( mnpqrstu^{\\prime}(0)=0 \\). Repeating this argument inductively, with \\( mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa)}(vwxyzabc) \\) playing the role of \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc) \\), proves the lemma.\n\nProof 2 (Taylor's Formula). We prove that \\( mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa)}(0)=0 \\) by induction. The \\( lkjhgfdsa=0 \\) case follows as in the previous proof, by continuity. Now assume that \\( lkjhgfdsa>0 \\), and \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)=0 \\) is known for \\( poiuytrew<lkjhgfdsa \\). Recall Taylor's Formula (Lagrange's form, see e.g. [Ap1, Section 7.7]) which states that for any \\( vwxyzabc>0 \\) and integer \\( lkjhgfdsa>0 \\), there exists \\( plmoknijb \\in[0, vwxyzabc] \\) such that\n\\[\nmnpqrstu(vwxyzabc)=mnpqrstu(0)+mnpqrstu^{\\prime}(0) vwxyzabc+\\cdots+mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa-1)}(0) vwxyzabc^{lkjhgfdsa-1} /(lkjhgfdsa-1)!+mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa)}\\left(plmoknijb\\right) vwxyzabc^{lkjhgfdsa} / lkjhgfdsa!.\n\\]\n\nBy our inductive hypothesis,\n\\[\nmnpqrstu(0)=\\cdots=mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa-1)}(0)=0\n\\]\n\nHence by taking \\( vwxyzabc=1,1 / 2,1 / 3, \\ldots \\), we get \\( mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa)}\\left(qazwsxedc\\right)=0 \\), where \\( 0 \\leq qazwsxedc \\leq 1 / zxcvbnmlk \\). But \\( \\lim _{zxcvbnmlk \\rightarrow \\infty} qazwsxedc=0 \\), so by continuity \\( mnpqrstu^{(lkjhgfdsa)}(0)=0 \\).\n\nProof 3 (J. P. Grossman). By continuity, \\( mnpqrstu(0)=0 \\). Let \\( poiuytrew \\) be the smallest nonnegative integer such that \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0) \\neq 0 \\). We assume \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)>0 \\); the same argument applies if \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)<0 \\). Then there exists \\( rfvtgbyhn \\) such that \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(vwxyzabc)>0 \\) on \\( (0, rfvtgbyhn] \\). Repeated integration shows that \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc)>0 \\) on ( \\( 0, rfvtgbyhn] \\), a contradiction.\n\nProof 4 sketch (explicit computation). By definition,\n\\[\nmnpqrstu^{\\prime}(0)=\\lim _{rfvtgbyhn \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{qzxwvtnp(rfvtgbyhn)-qzxwvtnp(0)}{rfvtgbyhn} .\n\\]\n\nMore generally, if \\( mnpqrstu \\) is infinitely differentiable in a neighborhood of 0 , then\n\\[\nmnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0)=\\lim _{rfvtgbyhn \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{\\sum_{asdfghjkl=0}^{poiuytrew}\\binom{poiuytrew}{asdfghjkl}(-1)^{poiuytrew-asdfghjkl} mnpqrstu(asdfghjkl rfvtgbyhn)}{rfvtgbyhn^{poiuytrew}}\n\\]\n(This can be proved by applying L'Hôpital's Rule \\( poiuytrew \\) times to the expression on the right.) Then choose \\( rfvtgbyhn=1 / lkjhgfdsa \\) where \\( lkjhgfdsa \\) runs over the multiples of \\( \\operatorname{lcm}(1, \\ldots, poiuytrew) \\), to obtain \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(vwxyzabc)=0 \\).\n\nRemark. The formula (1) holds under the weaker assumption that \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0) \\) exists. To prove this, apply L'Hôpital's Rule \\( poiuytrew-1 \\) times, and then write the resulting expression as a combination of limits of the form\n\\[\n\\lim _{rfvtgbyhn \\rightarrow 0} \\frac{mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew-1)}(asdfghjkl rfvtgbyhn)-mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew-1)}(0)}{asdfghjkl rfvtgbyhn}\n\\]\neach of which equals \\( mnpqrstu^{(poiuytrew)}(0) \\), by definition.\n\nRemark. Note that \\( mnpqrstu(vwxyzabc) \\) need not be the zero function! An infinitely differentiable function need not be represented by its Taylor series at a point, i.e., it need not be analytic. For example, consider\n\\[\nmnpqrstu(vwxyzabc)=\\left\\{\\begin{array}{ll}\ne^{-1 / vwxyzabc^{2}} \\sin (\\pi / vwxyzabc) & \\text { for } vwxyzabc \\neq 0 \\\\\n0 & \\text { for } vwxyzabc=0\n\\end{array}\\right.\n\\]"
    },
    "kernel_variant": {
      "question": "Let $f:\\mathbb R^{2}\\longrightarrow\\mathbb R$ be a $C^{\\infty}$–function satisfying  \n\\[\nf\\!\\left(2^{-m},\\,3^{-\\,n}\\right)\\;=\\;\n\\frac{1}{\\,1+2^{-2m}\\,3^{-2n}}\\qquad\\bigl(m,n\\in\\mathbb N\\bigr).\n\\]\n\nFor every pair of non–negative integers $(\\alpha,\\beta)$ compute the mixed partial derivatives  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0).\n\\]\n\n(As usual, $\\partial^{0}f/\\partial x^{0}\\partial y^{0}=f$.)",
      "solution": "Throughout we abbreviate   \n\\[\nx_{m}:=2^{-m},\\qquad y_{n}:=3^{-n}\\qquad(m,n\\in\\mathbb N).\n\\]\n\nSTEP 1.  A comparison function.  \nDefine\n\\[\ng(x,y):=\\frac{1}{1+x^{2}y^{2}}, \\qquad (x,y)\\in\\mathbb R^{2}.\n\\]\nBy construction $g\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)=f\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)$ for all $m,n\\ge1$.  \nPut $h:=f-g$.  Then $h\\in C^{\\infty}$ and  \n\n\\[\nh\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)=0\\quad\\text{for every }m,n\\ge1. \\tag{1}\n\\]\n\nOur goal is to show that every derivative of $h$ at $(0,0)$ vanishes; the derivatives of $f$ will then coincide with those of $g$.\n\nSTEP 2.  Vanishing of all derivatives of $h$ at $(0,0)$.\n\nLemma (one–variable vanishing criterion).  \nLet $\\varphi\\in C^{\\infty}(\\mathbb R)$ and suppose $\\varphi(s_{k})=0$ for a strictly monotone sequence $s_{k}\\to0$. Then $\\varphi^{(k)}(0)=0$ for every $k\\ge0$.\n\n(The proof is the classical repeated-Rolle/Taylor-remainder argument.)\n\nStage 1 – annihilation of each $x$–derivative along the horizontal nodes.  \nFix $n\\ge1$ and consider  \n\n\\[\n\\varphi_{n}(x):=h(x,y_{n})\\qquad(x\\in\\mathbb R).\n\\]\nEquation (1) gives $\\varphi_{n}(x_{m})=0$ for all $m\\ge1$ with $x_{m}\\to0$.  \nApplying the lemma,\n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}}(0,y_{n})=\\varphi_{n}^{(\\alpha)}(0)=0\n\\quad\\text{for every }\\alpha\\ge0,\\;n\\ge1. \\tag{2}\n\\]\n\nStage 2 – annihilation of the mixed derivatives at the origin.  \nFix $\\alpha\\ge0$ and define  \n\n\\[\n\\psi_{\\alpha}(y):=\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}}(0,y)\\qquad(y\\in\\mathbb R).\n\\]\nBy (2), $\\psi_{\\alpha}(y_{n})=0$ for all $n\\ge1$ with $y_{n}\\to0$.  \nApplying the lemma again,\n\\[\n\\psi_{\\alpha}^{(\\beta)}(0)=\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=0\n\\quad\\text{for every }\\beta\\ge0. \\tag{3}\n\\]\n\nBecause $\\alpha,\\beta$ are arbitrary, (3) yields  \n\n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=0\n\\quad\\forall\\;\\alpha,\\beta\\in\\mathbb N_{0}. \\tag{4}\n\\]\n\nSTEP 3.  Mixed derivatives of $g$ at $(0,0)$.\n\nFor $|x y|<1$ we may expand  \n\\[\ng(x,y)=(1+x^{2}y^{2})^{-1}\n       =\\sum_{k=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{k}(x^{2}y^{2})^{k}\n       =\\sum_{k=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{k}\\,x^{2k}y^{2k}. \\tag{5}\n\\]\n\nThus the bivariate power-series of $g$ contains only the monomials $x^{2k}y^{2k}$ ($k\\ge0$).  Consequently\n\n• If $\\alpha$ or $\\beta$ is odd, the coefficient of $x^{\\alpha}y^{\\beta}$ in (5) is $0$.  \n• If $\\alpha=2a$, $\\beta=2b$ with $a\\neq b$, the coefficient is also $0$.  \n• If $\\alpha=\\beta=2k$, the coefficient equals $(-1)^{k}$.\n\nDifferentiating termwise and evaluating at $(0,0)$ gives  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}g}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\begin{cases}\n0, & \\text{if }\\alpha\\text{ or }\\beta\\text{ is odd},\\\\[3pt]\n0, & \\text{if }\\alpha=2a,\\;\\beta=2b\\text{ with }a\\neq b,\\\\[6pt]\n(-1)^{k}\\,(2k)!\\,(2k)!, & \\text{if }\\alpha=\\beta=2k\\;(k\\in\\mathbb N_{0}).\n\\end{cases} \\tag{6}\n\\]\n\nSTEP 4.  Final answer for $f$.\n\nBy (4), every mixed partial derivative of $h$ at $(0,0)$ vanishes, hence  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}g}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0).\n\\]\nCombining this with (6) we obtain, for all $\\alpha,\\beta\\in\\mathbb N_{0}$,\n\\[\n\\boxed{\\;\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\begin{cases}\n(-1)^{k}\\,(2k)!\\,(2k)!, & \\text{if }\\alpha=\\beta=2k,\\\\[6pt]\n0, & \\text{otherwise.}\n\\end{cases}\n\\;}\n\\]\n\nIn particular $f(0,0)=g(0,0)=1$.",
      "metadata": {
        "replaced_from": "harder_variant",
        "replacement_date": "2025-07-14T19:09:31.722737",
        "was_fixed": false,
        "difficulty_analysis": "1. Higher dimension: the problem passes from a single-variable sequence to a two-variable grid, requiring control of mixed partial derivatives.  \n2. Additional constraints: h now vanishes on a Cartesian product of two sequences, not on a single one, demanding a genuinely two-dimensional argument.  \n3. Advanced theory: the solution invokes multi-index Taylor expansions, two-variable limit arguments, and combinatorial coefficient extraction, far beyond the one-dimensional Rolle/Taylor step of the original.  \n4. More intricate answer: instead of “all odd derivatives vanish, even derivatives are ±k!”, we must give a double-indexed family of numbers (11) involving factorials and binomial coefficients.  \n5. Deeper insight: recognising g(x,y)=1/(1+x²+y²) and proving the full two-variable vanishing-derivative lemma are essential; neither can be handled by the straightforward pattern-matching that solves the original problem.\n\nHence the enhanced variant is substantially more technical and conceptually demanding than both the original and the previous kernel version."
      }
    },
    "original_kernel_variant": {
      "question": "Let $f:\\mathbb R^{2}\\longrightarrow\\mathbb R$ be a $C^{\\infty}$–function satisfying  \n\\[\nf\\!\\left(2^{-m},\\,3^{-\\,n}\\right)\\;=\\;\n\\frac{1}{\\,1+2^{-2m}\\,3^{-2n}}\\qquad\\bigl(m,n\\in\\mathbb N\\bigr).\n\\]\n\nFor every pair of non–negative integers $(\\alpha,\\beta)$ compute the mixed partial derivatives  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0).\n\\]\n\n(As usual, $\\partial^{0}f/\\partial x^{0}\\partial y^{0}=f$.)",
      "solution": "Throughout we abbreviate   \n\\[\nx_{m}:=2^{-m},\\qquad y_{n}:=3^{-n}\\qquad(m,n\\in\\mathbb N).\n\\]\n\nSTEP 1.  A comparison function.  \nDefine\n\\[\ng(x,y):=\\frac{1}{1+x^{2}y^{2}}, \\qquad (x,y)\\in\\mathbb R^{2}.\n\\]\nBy construction $g\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)=f\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)$ for all $m,n\\ge1$.  \nPut $h:=f-g$.  Then $h\\in C^{\\infty}$ and  \n\n\\[\nh\\!\\left(x_{m},y_{n}\\right)=0\\quad\\text{for every }m,n\\ge1. \\tag{1}\n\\]\n\nOur goal is to show that every derivative of $h$ at $(0,0)$ vanishes; the derivatives of $f$ will then coincide with those of $g$.\n\nSTEP 2.  Vanishing of all derivatives of $h$ at $(0,0)$.\n\nLemma (one–variable vanishing criterion).  \nLet $\\varphi\\in C^{\\infty}(\\mathbb R)$ and suppose $\\varphi(s_{k})=0$ for a strictly monotone sequence $s_{k}\\to0$. Then $\\varphi^{(k)}(0)=0$ for every $k\\ge0$.\n\n(The proof is the classical repeated-Rolle/Taylor-remainder argument.)\n\nStage 1 – annihilation of each $x$–derivative along the horizontal nodes.  \nFix $n\\ge1$ and consider  \n\n\\[\n\\varphi_{n}(x):=h(x,y_{n})\\qquad(x\\in\\mathbb R).\n\\]\nEquation (1) gives $\\varphi_{n}(x_{m})=0$ for all $m\\ge1$ with $x_{m}\\to0$.  \nApplying the lemma,\n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}}(0,y_{n})=\\varphi_{n}^{(\\alpha)}(0)=0\n\\quad\\text{for every }\\alpha\\ge0,\\;n\\ge1. \\tag{2}\n\\]\n\nStage 2 – annihilation of the mixed derivatives at the origin.  \nFix $\\alpha\\ge0$ and define  \n\n\\[\n\\psi_{\\alpha}(y):=\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}}(0,y)\\qquad(y\\in\\mathbb R).\n\\]\nBy (2), $\\psi_{\\alpha}(y_{n})=0$ for all $n\\ge1$ with $y_{n}\\to0$.  \nApplying the lemma again,\n\\[\n\\psi_{\\alpha}^{(\\beta)}(0)=\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=0\n\\quad\\text{for every }\\beta\\ge0. \\tag{3}\n\\]\n\nBecause $\\alpha,\\beta$ are arbitrary, (3) yields  \n\n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}h}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=0\n\\quad\\forall\\;\\alpha,\\beta\\in\\mathbb N_{0}. \\tag{4}\n\\]\n\nSTEP 3.  Mixed derivatives of $g$ at $(0,0)$.\n\nFor $|x y|<1$ we may expand  \n\\[\ng(x,y)=(1+x^{2}y^{2})^{-1}\n       =\\sum_{k=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{k}(x^{2}y^{2})^{k}\n       =\\sum_{k=0}^{\\infty}(-1)^{k}\\,x^{2k}y^{2k}. \\tag{5}\n\\]\n\nThus the bivariate power-series of $g$ contains only the monomials $x^{2k}y^{2k}$ ($k\\ge0$).  Consequently\n\n• If $\\alpha$ or $\\beta$ is odd, the coefficient of $x^{\\alpha}y^{\\beta}$ in (5) is $0$.  \n• If $\\alpha=2a$, $\\beta=2b$ with $a\\neq b$, the coefficient is also $0$.  \n• If $\\alpha=\\beta=2k$, the coefficient equals $(-1)^{k}$.\n\nDifferentiating termwise and evaluating at $(0,0)$ gives  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}g}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\begin{cases}\n0, & \\text{if }\\alpha\\text{ or }\\beta\\text{ is odd},\\\\[3pt]\n0, & \\text{if }\\alpha=2a,\\;\\beta=2b\\text{ with }a\\neq b,\\\\[6pt]\n(-1)^{k}\\,(2k)!\\,(2k)!, & \\text{if }\\alpha=\\beta=2k\\;(k\\in\\mathbb N_{0}).\n\\end{cases} \\tag{6}\n\\]\n\nSTEP 4.  Final answer for $f$.\n\nBy (4), every mixed partial derivative of $h$ at $(0,0)$ vanishes, hence  \n\\[\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}g}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0).\n\\]\nCombining this with (6) we obtain, for all $\\alpha,\\beta\\in\\mathbb N_{0}$,\n\\[\n\\boxed{\\;\n\\frac{\\partial^{\\alpha+\\beta}f}{\\partial x^{\\alpha}\\partial y^{\\beta}}(0,0)=\n\\begin{cases}\n(-1)^{k}\\,(2k)!\\,(2k)!, & \\text{if }\\alpha=\\beta=2k,\\\\[6pt]\n0, & \\text{otherwise.}\n\\end{cases}\n\\;}\n\\]\n\nIn particular $f(0,0)=g(0,0)=1$.",
      "metadata": {
        "replaced_from": "harder_variant",
        "replacement_date": "2025-07-14T01:37:45.562193",
        "was_fixed": false,
        "difficulty_analysis": "1. Higher dimension: the problem passes from a single-variable sequence to a two-variable grid, requiring control of mixed partial derivatives.  \n2. Additional constraints: h now vanishes on a Cartesian product of two sequences, not on a single one, demanding a genuinely two-dimensional argument.  \n3. Advanced theory: the solution invokes multi-index Taylor expansions, two-variable limit arguments, and combinatorial coefficient extraction, far beyond the one-dimensional Rolle/Taylor step of the original.  \n4. More intricate answer: instead of “all odd derivatives vanish, even derivatives are ±k!”, we must give a double-indexed family of numbers (11) involving factorials and binomial coefficients.  \n5. Deeper insight: recognising g(x,y)=1/(1+x²+y²) and proving the full two-variable vanishing-derivative lemma are essential; neither can be handled by the straightforward pattern-matching that solves the original problem.\n\nHence the enhanced variant is substantially more technical and conceptually demanding than both the original and the previous kernel version."
      }
    }
  },
  "checked": true,
  "problem_type": "calculation"
}