{"question":"I remember learning about an ex prisoner who was brought to America to help train the soldiers. But the details escape me. Can anyone provide details to who he was?","answer_a":"Those clues are kind of vague, but one possible candidate *might* be Casimir Pulaski. He was an effective cavalry officer who was embroiled in the chaos of Poland in the later 18th c. and fought on a losing side, but while he was tried and condemned and his possessions confiscated, he'd fled to France  by then. So, \"ex prisoner\" is not *quite* correct. But he did indeed help train American cavalry- and irritated quite a few who served with him with his imperious manner. If you heard about him in the US, it might be because there are a lot of towns named after him, and he became quite a popular hero to later Polish-Americans.<br \/>Pienkos, A. (1976). A Bicentennial Look at Casimir Pulaski: Polish, American and Ethnic Folk Hero. Polish American Studies, 33(1), 5\u201317. http:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/20147942","answer_b":"The ex-prisoner mentioned is most likely Jean-Baptiste Charbonneau, also known as Pomp. He was the son of Sacagawea and Toussaint Charbonneau, and accompanied the Lewis and Clark expedition as a young child.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste was born in 1805 and captured by the Hidatsa tribe at a young age. He spent several years living with the Hidatsa before being traded to the Lewis and Clark expedition in exchange for horses. Lewis and Clark took him under their wing, and he spent the next several years traveling with them across the country.<br \/>In 1811, the expedition returned to St. Louis and Jean-Baptiste was placed in the care of William Clark. Clark helped to educate him and arranged for him to be trained as a blacksmith.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste spent the next few years working as a blacksmith in St. Louis. In 1823, he was hired by the US government to help train soldiers at Fort Atkinson in Wisconsin. He continued to work as a blacksmith and soldier until his death in 1866.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions.\nAnswer B fails to consider the question asks about a person who was brought to the United States - their candidate was in the US the entire time.\nAnswer A does address all aspects and provides a source.  Answer B is quite long, describes the life of a man who cannot be the person the question is asking for.\n\nBoth have good grammar.\n\nBoth Answer A & B describe the life of their candidate in easy to read biographical style.\n\nAnswer B is irrelevant because they offer a candidate that does not meet the criteria of the question.\n\nNeither answer has incorrect information.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"There are lots of interesting religious relics listed on Wikipedia like [Mary Magdalene's skull] (https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Relics_of_Mary_Magdalene?wprov=sfla1).<br \/>How would a church have come by something like this and how likely is this to be real (by which I mean the skull belonging to the real historical figure)? <br \/>On that subject, are there any other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance that you could post about?","answer_a":"The thing is that whether or not a relic is 'real' is sometimes not the point. More can always be said on the matter if anyone would like to explore this topic, so if you can contribute your knowledge, please don't let this linkdrop stop you! For the meantime, OP, I commend to your attention u\/WelfOnTheShelf's [post on relics and their authenticity](https:\/\/old.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/hi3z4f\/i_am_the_abbot_of_a_mediumsized_medieval\/).","answer_b":"The church could have come by the skull in a number of ways. It could have been donated by a follower of Mary Magdalene, or it could have been acquired through trade or purchase. It is also possible that the skull was taken from Magdalene's tomb after her death.<br \/>There is no way to know for sure if the skull is real. However, if it did belong to the historical figure of Mary Magdalene, it would be a very significant relic.<br \/>There are a number of other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance. For example, the Shroud of Turin is a piece of cloth that is believed by some to be the burial shroud of Jesus Christ. The relic is controversial, as some believe it to be a fake, but it remains a significant religious relic nonetheless.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions.\nAnswer A does not answer the question at all.  Answer B answers most of the question, but could have additional examples of relics rather than the well know shroud of Turin.  It also does not include sources, and sounds like someone who has a general knowledge of the subject, not an expert.\nNeither have fatal grammar. \nAnswer A is not easy to follow.  It refers to a link drop and 'OP' which is confusing: \n\no if you can contribute your knowledge, please don't let this linkdrop stop you! For the meantime, OP, I commend to your attention u\/WelfOnTheShelf's [post on relics and their authenticity]\nThis same quote seems to have irrelevant information.\n\nNeither answer is factually incorrect."}
{"question":"What were the differences (if any) in the standard protective finishes on firearms from WWI to WWII?<br \/>I'm struggling to find conclusive details on the protective finishes used on historical firearms.<br \/>While browning has been around for centuries, blueing seems to be almost universally preferred for firearms. However, I can't find any reliable sources on exactly how these firearms were protected. Some say they were blued, others that they just slapped on a load of radiator paint. Still others talk about anodising but that seems unlikely to me based on examples I've seen. I've also heard that they simply weren't protected at all, notably with the Sten gun.","answer_a":"As you likely have noticed, there are LOTS of ways to blue a firearm. What makes it confusing is that both browning and blueing are making an iron oxide layer, and a blued finish will, on exposure to the elements ( like, someone goes hunting) bit by bit revert to regular brown rust, so quite a lot of guns are now brown that were once blue ( there's a gunsmith invocation over blueing: \"from rust you came, to rust you shall return\"). <br \/>In the later 1800's it was discovered that a phosphate coating could be created that was more stable than blueing or browning. The patent history is a bit complex, but the process was made practical after 1900, and in 1918 the Parker Rust-Proof Company started up in Detroit. Because of them , the finish has since generally been called parkerizing, and it was adopted by Springfield Armory and contractors as the standard finish on US small arms in WWII, like the Garand, the 1911A1 automatic pistol, the 1903A3 rifle.  I'm afraid I don't know if any other countries used it, however: I think a blued finish was the most common elsewhere. <br \/>Even though the patents have long expired, the Parker Company still exists, and has a [website](https:\/\/www.parkerhq.com\/about-us)<br \/>Angier, R. H. (2021). Firearm Blueing & Browning (First Edition). Stackpole Co.   ( I should note, here, that Angier's book, the classic reference,  is from 1936. It is  still in print)","answer_b":"There is some debate over the protective finishes used on firearms during WWI and WWII. Some say that the firearms were blued, while others claim that they were simply painted with radiator paint. Still others believe that the firearms were anodized, though this seems unlikely based on examples that have been found. It is also possible that the firearms were not protected at all, as was the case with the Sten gun.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the best answer as Answer B is just a repeat of the original question.\n\nAnswer A has no grammar issues,  is well-formulated, does not contain irrelevant into, and contains factual information.\nAnswer A provides sources and expert explanation of the timeline from 1800s-1912 and how firearms were finished."}
{"question":"When the joint-stock company was first invented, was there a lot of pushback on the concept? What were some of the concerns?  Also any recommended books on the invention of the concept would be much appreciated!","answer_a":"An early form of joint stock ventures appeared in Assyria by the beginning of the 2nd millennium BCE. There does not seem to have been any noticeable pushback against the concept, although trade caravans were often taxed heavily. Of course, the relevant texts were written to and from people engaged in trade, so there's no way of knowing what other Assyrians thought of long distance trade. <br \/>>Most of these traders had become more independent by having become managers of a \"joint-stock fund\" (called *naruqqum*, \"money bag\"), usually set up in Assur. This phenomenon appeared for the first time around 1900 BC and seems to have been an Old Assyrian invention that went beyond individual partnerships and cooperation in a joint caravan. The arrangement, rather similar to that of the early medieval *compagnia*, meant enlisting a number (usually about a dozen) of investors (*ummi\u0101num*, \"financiers\"), who supplied capital rated in gold, usually in all ca. 30 kilos, ideally consisting of shares of 1 or 2 kilos of gold each. It was entrusted to a trader (the tractator), usually for ca. ten years, for the generally formulated purpose of \"carrying out trade.\" The contract contained stipulations on a final settlement of accounts, on paying dividends, on the division of the expected profit, and on fines for premature withdrawal of capital (meant to secure the duration of the business). Investors or shareholders mostly lived in Assur, but successful traders in Anatolia too invested in funds managed by others, perhaps also as a way of sharing commercial risks. In such cases a contract would to be drawn up in Anatolia that obliged the tractator \"to book in Assur x gold in his joint stock fund in the investor's name.\" Among the investors we find members of the tractator's family, but also business relations and others, probably a kind of \"merchant-bankers,\" and other rich citizens, who aimed at fairly safe, long-term investments.<br \/>[\"Ancient Assur: The City, its Traders, and its Commercial Network\"](https:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/25651212) by Klaas Veenhof<br \/>For more on Old Assyrian trade and these early joint stock funds, see [*Ancient Kanesh: A Merchant Colony in Bronze Age Anatolia*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=qXGgCgAAQBAJ) by Mogens Larsen.","answer_b":"There was definitely some pushback when the joint-stock company was first invented. Some people were concerned that it would lead to corruption and cronyism, while others were worried that it would concentrate too much power in the hands of a few people. Recommended books on the topic include The First Tycoon: The Epic Life of Cornelius Vanderbilt by T.J. Stiles and The Great Transformation: The Political and Economic Origins of Our Time by Karl Polanyi.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"There are no false assumptions in the question.\n\nAnswer B does not clarify when it was \"invented\", it provides sources related to a very recent history.  Answer A provides sources, language and terminology related to it's claim the Assyrians began joint stock companies.  It is clear this person is an expert.\n\nBoth answers have good grammar.\n\nBoth are well formulated, Answer A shares terms that are connected to the ancient joint stock ventures it describes.\n\nAnswer B tells you almost nothing relevant - therefore, almost all of it is irrelevant.  It is so vague, it sounds like someone who knows nothing about the subject answered the question.\n\nAn example of the vague writing:\nThere was definitely some pushback when the joint-stock company was first invented\n\nBoth have factual information.\n"}
{"question":"I'm reading through Ketcham's biography of Madison and I came on this quote just after Madison become Secretary of State describing a job seeker who<br \/>>began hopefully with a request for a territorial governorship, gradually descended to pleas to be appointed a port collector or postmaster, and ended finally... with a request for castoff clothing<br \/>This sounds very similar to something from Team of Rivals where Lincoln told a very similar story of someone settling for pants. Would one or both of these have been fictional stories told as jokes? Might Lincoln have taken the story from Madison? Or was this a common way that these job seekers asked for stuff?","answer_a":"It is possible that Madison and Lincoln were both telling jokes, as it is common for politicians to tell stories to make a point. It is also possible that Lincoln took the story from Madison, as he was known to borrow stories from others. It is also possible that this was a common way for job seekers to ask for things, as it would have been a way to get the attention of the person they were asking.","answer_b":"From the outset of the new US, every change in administration would result in a new chance for government posts to be awarded.  Of all the Founding Fathers. Madison was the consummate deal maker, and it's easy to imagine the story originating with him. <br \/> But Andrew Jackson was the most notorious practitioner of awarding posts to friends:  before him, chances were at least pretty good that a Federalist would be able to keep his job if a Democratic President came to power. But Jackson wanted a bureaucracy loyal to him, correctly saw that rewarding office seekers with positions was a way to gain political support in their regions, and was quick to terminate people in order to get it. By Lincoln's administration, it was very much expected that a there would be a major turnover in positions coming in with his election, so your story was certainly a joke- a wry one, as Lincoln had plenty of men hanging about the White House getting in his way, hoping for just such a chance.  But the joke had a point, both for Madison and Lincoln- there had to be a quid pro quo, as the office seeker was expected to bring some local influence, bring the support of a Congressman, an electoral district; something useful. A man without influence might well only be able to beg for a pair of pants.<br \/>Real civil service reform was begun by Garfield, and after he was shot by an office seeker, carried on to everyone's surprise by  Chester A. Arthur. The Pendelton Act of 1883 that began to create a professional civil service really does not get as much attention as it should, for the \"spoils system\" had been a major source of corruption.<br \/>Hoogenboom, Ari Arthur( 1982) *Outlawing the Spoils: A History of the Civil Service Reform Movement, 1865-1883*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither answer is good.  Answer A is very vague and you learn very little about the surrounding circumstances connected to sharing this kind of story.  Answer B is rambling and confusing for the reader.  It uses examples that convolute the argument.\n\nThe question does not contain fall assumptions.\n\nBoth questions attempt to answer every part of the question.  \n\nAnswer A is well formulated.  Answer B is not and is not easy to follow.  The information in the 2nd paragraph about Andrew Jackson is confusing and starts with the word 'but' like the reader should expect this A.J. info.:\n\n But Andrew Jackson was the most notorious practitioner of awarding posts to friends: before him, chances were at least pretty good that a Federalist would be able to keep his job if a Democratic President came to power. But Jackson wanted a bureaucracy loyal to him, correctly saw that rewarding office seekers with positions was a way to gain political support in their regions, and was quick to terminate people in order to get it.\n\nI believe this same quote above is irrelevant.  Also answer B talks about civil service reform, not relevant to the question:\n\nReal civil service reform was begun by Garfield, and after he was shot by an office seeker, carried on to everyone's surprise by Chester A. Arthur. The Pendelton Act of 1883 that began to create a professional civil service really does not get as much attention as it should, for the \"spoils system\" had been a major source of corruption.\n\nBoth are factually accurate.\n\n"}
{"question":"Has there been any battles in history where both sides were completely and mutually destroyed?","answer_a":"In normal conditions, this would not happen, since casualty rates in historical battles are rarely that extreme. In ancient warfare the defeated side might incur something like 10-20% casualties unless things went disastrously wrong. In modern warfare a unit that has lost more than 30% effectives is considered unfit for action.<br \/>Most of the time, the deciding factor is morale. Warriors simply aren't going to keep on fighting when they see their buddies falling left and right and they see no way of turning things around. They're going to try to get out of there, find a place of safety, and regroup if they can; or they're going to surrender. When the situation is hopeless, most armies will give up the fight, and this will happen long before they come anywhere near total annihilation. In fact, in premodern warfare the great majority of casualties were sustained when the side that broke first was fleeing from the battlefield with the victorious side in hot pursuit.<br \/>So, given these conditions, what would you need to achieve mutual destruction? You'd need two sides that were roughly evenly matched and utterly determined never to give up. The necessary attitude may sometimes be found among the last defenders of a town or fortress, but of course you would never get two such forces fighting each other; in most cases where one side is prepared to fight to the end, the other side is vastly superior and not similarly inclined. The result would be either the annihilation of the defenders or the flight of the attackers - never mutual destruction.<br \/>There is one case from Greek history that meets your requirements, though, by virtue of being artificially created and utterly exceptional: the so-called Battle of the Champions, fought around 550 BC between the Spartans and the Argives (Herodotos 1.82). When the two armies met, they agreed to settle their dispute over a border region by each choosing 300 champions, and letting those men fight it out. It seems these picked forces were a match for each other, because all 600 men died, except for two Argives and one Spartan. At that point the two Argives left the battlefield and declared themselves victorious. The Spartan stayed behind, stripped the dead of their armour, and declared himself victorious. <br \/>There is no other example of a prearranged battle like this in Greek history. The reason is obvious: it was a complete failure, since the two sides couldn't agree on who had won, and in the end they decided to launch their whole armies into an all-out battle anyway. But because of the artificial conditions and the dedication of the 600 champions, it's the closest a battle ever got to complete destruction on both sides.","answer_b":"There have been a few instances in history where both sides in a battle were completely and mutually destroyed. One example is the Battle of Cannae during the Second Punic War, in which the Carthaginian forces led by Hannibal annihilated a much larger Roman army. Another example is the Battle of Agincourt during the Hundred Years' War, in which the English forces led by Henry V defeated a much larger French army.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"no false assumptions.\nI believe answer B does not take into account the question states the armies are \"completely destroyed,\"  the examples provided by answer B do not involve armies that were completely destroyed.  Answer A give a singular well thought out example of a battle in which all but three were killed, it also offers sources. This answers the question.\nGrammar is fine.\nBoth are easy to follow.\nAnswer B's discussion of the Punic War Battle and Agincourt is irrelevant because those examples do not demonstrate 'complete destruction:\n     One example is the Battle of Cannae during the Second Punic War, in which the Carthaginian forces led by Hannibal annihilated a much larger Roman army. Another example is the Battle of Agincourt during the Hundred Years' War, in which the English forces led by Henry V defeated a much larger French army.\n\nBoth answers offer correct information.\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"In an aside in *Eichmann* Arendt casually asserts Heydrich was a mischling. This is...wrong, right?  Is this at all an open question?  Why would she have thought this?","answer_a":"Arendt's assertion that Heydrich was a mischling (of mixed Jewish and non-Jewish descent) is wrong. There is no evidence that Heydrich had any Jewish ancestry, and he was raised as a Catholic. It is unclear why Arendt would have thought Heydrich was a mischling, but it is possible she was confused by his Jewish-sounding surname.","answer_b":"It was a rumor, but never substantiated. It did crop up within Nazi circles by others looking to damage his own standing in the party, but a 1932 investigation determined it was baseless, and as far as I am aware, non-Nazi research in the matter has likewise been fruitless. The basis of it was the last name of his father's step-father, which was Suss. Although \"Jewish-sounding\" Gustav Suss was a) not Jewish b) Bruno Heydrich's step-father not his real father and c) only nine years older than Bruno when he married Bruno's mother (Bruno was in his early 20s at that point).<br \/>So in short it was a rumor premised on impossibilities.<br \/>See: Robert Gerwarth. Hitler's Hangman: The Life of Heydrich.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer. Answer A infers that there was never any reason for the rumor that he was part Jewish and that there was never any rumor in the first place.  This assumption is wrong - there was talk of Heydrich being part Jewish in the WWI era. https:\/\/www.historyplace.com\/worldwar2\/biographies\/heydrich-biography.htm\n\nThey both answer all parts of the question.\nThere are no grammar issues.\nBoth are easy to read.\nThe info is relevant.\nAgain Answer A leads you to believe this rumor is made up by the author when it has been around since early in Heydrich's life."}
{"question":"I was wondering if there was any historical references of a Leader employing a humanitarian crisis as a trap for an invading force in the way that the fictional character Marco Inaros succeeded to do on the Expanse?<br \/>Spoiler for anyone who intends on watching season 6, episode 3 of the Expanse, but I want to find if this was uniquely fictitious or if there\u2019s very real historical events I could also explore. Without needing to see the Expanse, I will give a quick run down of what happened:<br \/>As two navies fight for control in space, Earth vs the Outer Belt \u201cFree Navy,\u201d the Earth force intends to invade the Capitol city of Ceres station. It was important to establish a foothold in future attacks. Upon arrival, the invaders find that the city has been stripped of all food and supplies, and the residents left with only a few weeks of food before they would starve to death. What appeared to be an effortless victory ended as a humanitarian crisis draining resources and entrapping the Earth navy in a PR nightmare instead of decisive victory. <br \/>Has this ever been deployed in real life? Maybe in WWII with the prison camps or possibly (and if it\u2019s against the rules to mention, please skip), but modern times fall of Baghdad in the recent war in Iraq be considered a similar ploy? I doubted anything before mass media or before the value of life became more culturally valued \u2014 I could see barbaric or even crusade or colonizing invaders cutting down local peasants without concern for life.","answer_a":"That\u2019s is super interesting. Definitely not on purpose but had a similar effect. That\u2019s awesome. I\u2019m going to keep the thread open for any other historical references but I do appreciate this and it\u2019s 1 more than I expected to get","answer_b":"I mean, it was definitely not intentional, but as Confederate armies retreated from the banks of the Mississippi, along which some of the South's wealthiest and largest plantations were located, the Union was left guarding an enormous expanse, filled with tens of thousands of freedmen that desperately needed food, medicine and clothing. This created a giant humanitarian crisis that the Union Army was ill-equipped to handle. Their best attempts were to put the freedmen into \"Contraband Camps\" that were rife with disease and unsanitary conditions. Another approach was to lease abandoned and confiscated plantations to Northern factors, who would then employ the freedmen to grow cotton. But in any case the crisis was never completely solved, and it proved to be a constant drain in Union resources and manpower, an embarrassment for the Lincoln administration, and a military factor in that the need to patrol the territory diverted thousands of troops and occasionally had adverse effects in military operations. <br \/>However, this was not an intentional ploy on the part of the Confederates. If they had gotten their way the Union would never have occupied those territories, and the people they enslaved would have remained in their plantations under their control. The freedmen who remained and thus came under Union protection did so not because of the Confederates but in spite of them, as they refused to flee with their masters. Instead, they abandoned the plantations and entered Union lines, or alternately, knowing that the Union would soon take control of the plantation, remained there, defying attempts to \"refugee\" them. Moreover, most of the outrage in reaction of the terrible conditions in the camps came from Northern abolitionists - people the Southerners despised.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answser A is not an answer to the question.  It acknowledges the question and thanks the writer but gives no information at all.  Consequently, Answer B is the best answer.  Answer B is a good summary of a non -example from the US Civil War.  That said, answer B is well formulated and easy to follow. The information in answer B is accurate."}
{"question":"Were there any battles during World War 2 involving significant amounts of tanks of French, British, or Japanese origin?<br \/>We hear plenty about conflicts between American or Russian and German armored divisions during the war, but I'm not too familiar with any battles involving Japanese, French or British tanks. I'm aware that the French army folded relatively quickly and a significant amount of equipment fell into German hands, and that the island hopping campaign and the terrain involved wasn't overly conducive to armored warfare, but I feel that makes these conflicts, if any exist, more interesting","answer_a":"Depending on your definition of \"significant amounts\", the Japanese had 73 tanks in the Battle of Khalkhin Gol against the Soviet Union in 1939.<br \/>See *Japanese Tanks 1939-45* by Stephen J. Zaloga for details.","answer_b":"For Japan there is some stuff in Alvin Coox *Nomonhan: Japan Against Russia, 1939.*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to determine the best answer as both answers are brief and vague.  Neither give the reader valuable information on French or British tanks, and very little info on Japanese tanks and the battles they were used in.\n\nThe question may assume the British, French and Japanese had tanks.\n\nNeither answer gives any information about British or French tanks, and very little about Japanese tanks.  Answer A provides limited information on Japanese tanks and the battles they may have been in- and so this answer was chosen.\n\nBoth of the brief answers are easy to follow.\n\nNeither contains factually incorrect info.\n"}
{"question":"Is there any idea what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles? When the church was replaced with a mosque, would the bones from the crypt just have been randomly tossed somewhere?","answer_a":"The Crusaders tossed those bones during the sacking in 1204.<br \/>Janin Raymond, La G\u00e9ographie Eccl\u00e9siastique de l'Empire Byzantin. 1. Part: Le Si\u00e8ge de Constantinople et le Patriarcat Oecum\u00e9nique. 3rd Vol. : Les \u00c9glises et les Monast\u00e8res","answer_b":"There is no certain answer to what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles. It is possible that the bones from the crypt were just randomly tossed somewhere when the church was replaced with a mosque.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither contains false assumptions.\nThey both seem to consider all aspects of the question.\nBoth have good grammar.\nAnswer A is so short of an answer I would call it not well formulated.  Both are easy to follow.\nNeither contains irrelevant info.\nAnswer A leads you to believe that we know the 'Bones were tossed' when the sacking occurred.  We know they took artifacts during that event, but we are not certain the bones were desecrated in this manner.\n"}
{"question":"A medieval household and village produced a lot of ash, what would they do with all of it?<br \/>Ash can be good for gardens but too much ash, there's a lot of lye and salts put into the soil and it will burn up the root systems.","answer_a":"That's what ash-holes (or ash-pits)  are good for:[https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit](https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit)<br \/>Archeologists love ashholes as a lot of other stuff got thrown in there as well.   <br \/>Here is an interesting  article, aptly named \"Have you tried the ash pit\" that discusses an ash-pit excavation in Ireland in detail: [https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have\\_you\\_tried\\_the\\_ash\\_pit](https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have_you_tried_the_ash_pit)","answer_b":"A medieval household might use ash in the garden, but too much ash can be harmful. Ash can contain high levels of lye and salts, which can burn plant roots.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is not an original thought - it takes the information found in the question and repeats it in a new sentence.  Answer A provides two sources that allow people to explore this answer on their own. One source gives the definition of an ash pit and the second source provides a research article related to the question.  \nNeither of these answers are good - answer B is not new information while answer A is so brief you learn very little."}
{"question":"Could Frederick Douglass swim?","answer_a":"I think that the best thing to ask about, perhaps, would be *childhood* within the bounds of enslavement. Young enslaved children would often be the playmates of white children, so learning to swim together would not be unusual - and Douglass, elsewhere in the extended quotation, makes clear swimming was something from his *childhood*, describing his swim that *\"Here all my boyish pranks in the front basin of Baltimore were renewed\"*. It was a very interesting dichotomy that existed in those situations, an intermixing both of friendship *and* mastery, so definitely a lot of fodder to write about.","answer_b":"That\u2019s actually very interesting, I was under the impression efforts were made to make sure slaves couldn\u2019t swim as a means of cutting off potential escape routes via rivers or ponds etc. it makes sense it wasn\u2019t black and white (ha, like it ever was)","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A provides evidence in Fredrick Douglass' own words to demonstrate that he could swim or did swim as a child.\nThere are no fatal grammar mistakes.\nThey are both well formulated and easy to read.\nAnswer A gives part of a quote that proves to the reader that F.D. did swim, but not the beginning part of the quote which mentions the word \"swim\" specifically. He says he was hiking looking for a place to renew his knowledge in the 'art of swimming'.  The quote offered in the answer is misleading..  \nhttps:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=ylTDDwAAQBAJ&pg=PA269&lpg=PA269&dq=Here+all+my+boyish+pranks+in+the+front+basin+of+Baltimore+were+renewed%22*.&source=bl&ots=rvTFWzaIdy&sig=ACfU3U1xFmVpaPvgj7zo08grL_9EWWSJGw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwju3eT5pLb6AhW6KlkFHUZ6B9cQ6AF6BAgEEAM#v=onepage&q&f=false\n\nAnswer B isn't exactly inaccurate, but it leads the reader to believe it is likely F.D. did n't know how to swim, when F.D. himself says he did know how.  "}
{"question":"In the USA, the flag of the Confederacy is often flown proudly. It\u2019s the flag of the states that declared war on the rest of their country, a war they lost. Are there any other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted?","answer_a":"There are no other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted.","answer_b":"The flag of the II Spanish Republic (red, yellow, and purple horizontal stripes) is quite popular among the Spanish left. The Republic lost the Civil War of 1936-39 that resulted in General Francisco Franco becoming dictator until his death in 1975.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the wrong answer - or a false assumption that this has never happened anywhere else before. Answer B is a better answer.  https:\/\/www.washingtonpost.com\/news\/the-fix\/wp\/2015\/07\/10\/why-is-the-confederate-flag-still-a-thing-even-though-the-south-lost-the-civil-war\/\nBoth answer respond fully to the question.  Neither have grammar errors.  They are both easy to follow.  No information is irrelevant, and answer A is incorrect - Answer B is the right answer."}
{"question":"What was the special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome?<br \/>I\u2019ve completely forgotten the name and can\u2019t find anything on google","answer_a":"The special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome was \"auxilia.\"","answer_b":"If you mean the non-Roman troops typically led by their own chieftains, those are the *foederati*.<br \/>*The Late Roman Army*, Pat Southern and Karen R Dixon, 1996.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the correct answer, therefore, the best answer.  Answer A identifies the names of mercenaries hired by the Roman army from surrounding 'free provincial states.' B identifies the word 'foederati' as the correct answer, but it is not the definition of mercenaries - the Foederati are tribes from the surrounding area that establish a treaty with Rome to fight for them as a group. \n https:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/294799\nboth are easy to follow.\nAnswer B is irrelevant in it's entirety as it is the wrong answer."}
{"question":"Is there a historical reason why people shout \"Geronimo\" when jumping off things?","answer_a":"Since Geronimo fought in Arizona and Sonora, where did the story come from?","answer_b":"From https:\/\/www.etymonline.com\/word\/geronimo  <br \/>\"Geronimo\" cry made in jumping, 1944 among U.S. airborne soldiers, apparently from the story of the Apache leader Geronimo making a daring leap to escape U.S. cavalry pursuers at Medicine   Bluffs, Oklahoma (and supposedly shouting his name in defiance as he did). Adopted as battle cry by paratroopers in World War II, who perhaps had seen it in the 1939 Paramount Studios movie \"Geronimo.\" The name is the Italian and Spanish form of Jerome, from Greek Hieronomos, literally \"sacred name.\" One contemporary source also lists Osceola as a jumping cry.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"the question does not contain false assumptions.\n\nAnswer A does not consider any aspects of the question, it simply adds an additional question - maybe written by the original author of the question.\n\nneither has fatal grammar.\nBoth are easy to follow.\nAnswer A is irrelevant in its entirety.\nAnswer B is factually correct.\n"}
{"question":"I\u2019m reading Richard Miles\u2019 *Carthage Must be Destroyed*, and it includes this map [https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w](https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w) of Phoenician trading routes in the section titled \u201cThe Early City,\u201d so I\u2019m assuming this is meant to depict them during the time covered by the section in question, around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria, but Alexandria wasn\u2019t there yet. Where is this supposed to be? Was it just a random little Phoenician trading stop, and if so how would Miles or whoever made this map have decided that that specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route? You\u2019d think the answer would be in the text of the book, but if it is I can\u2019t find it \ud83d\ude05","answer_a":"The map in question is meant to depict the Phoenician trading routes around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria. However, Alexandria was not founded until around 331 BC, centuries after the time period depicted in the map.<br \/>So, what is this supposed to be? It is most likely a Phoenician trading stop that was in existence before Alexandria was founded. Miles or whoever made this map may have decided that this specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route based on its location and the fact that it was a known trading stop for the Phoenicians.","answer_b":"It's almost certainly referring to [Herakleion](https:\/\/www.theguardian.com\/cities\/2016\/aug\/15\/lost-cities-6-thonis-heracleion-egypt-sunken-sea), which was the largest port in Egypt at the time and the main source of goods bound for the Greek settlement of [Naukratis](https:\/\/www.ucl.ac.uk\/museums-static\/digitalegypt\/naukratis\/index.html) in the western Delta. For more on relations between Egypt and the other Mediterranean powers, see [*Beyond the Nile: Egypt and the Classical World*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=UTlDDwAAQBAJ) edited by Sara Cole.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is a repeat of the question, therefore Answer B wins as it attempts to answer the question.  \nAnswer B does answer the question.  The imbedded links make it hard to read, but other than that there is no grammar issues and it is easy to follow.   The information in Answer B is correct.\n"}
{"question":"What does the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" mean and where did it come from? I have frequently seen it in archeology reports, or when Brits are speaking. I presume it to mean an improved road of some sort like gravel or paved road as opposed to a plain dirt road.","answer_a":"The term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is used to describe an improved road surface that is made up of compacted materials like gravel, stone, or pavement. This type of road surface is typically found in areas with high traffic volume or in locations where the natural soil conditions are not suitable for a paved road. In some cases, metal roads can also refer to roads that are coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous materials. <br \/>The term \"metal road\" is believed to have originated in the early 19th century, when roads were first being improved with compacted materials like gravel and stone. At that time, the use of metal (usually iron or steel) was also becoming more common in road construction, as it was used to reinforce the roadbed or to create drainage ditches alongside the road. Over time, the term \"metal road\" came to be used as a general term for any improved road surface, regardless of the materials used. <br \/>Today, the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is still used in many parts of the world, particularly in Britain, to describe an improved road surface. In some cases, the term is used interchangeably with \"paved road\" or \"tarred road.\" However, in other cases, it may be used to specifically describe a road that is made up of compacted materials like gravel or stone, or a road that is coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous material.","answer_b":"I\u2019m far from an expert, but decided to look this up a bit. At first, I expected to it be related to \u201cvia feratta\u201d, italian for iron path. These protected climbing routes built in mountains, notably in the Dolomites in WW1. I was incorrect. The correct, if more pedestrian explanation is that a metaled road is simply a road made of compacted small stones or gravel.<br \/>Source- https:\/\/dictionary.cambridge.org\/dictionary\/english\/metalled","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither question includes false assumptions.\nB does not consider all aspects of the question.  It does not address where the term came from.\nBoth contain good grammar.\nBoth are well-formulated and easy to follow.\nB does contain irrelevant information - the author shares what they thought the answer was, which is wrong so it does not need to be mentioned:\n\nI\u2019m far from an expert, but decided to look this up a bit. At first, I expected to it be related to \u201cvia feratta\u201d, italian for iron path. These protected climbing routes built in mountains, notably in the Dolomites in WW1. I was incorrect. \n\nNeither provides faulty information.\n\n"}
{"question":"What's the deal with concubines in Ancient China?  How were they selected?  Were any selected from the common classes or were they generally from upper class families?  Was it shameful or a great honor for your daughter or sister to be selected as a concubine?","answer_a":"In terms of what's the deal, I wrote a bit about [why a monogamous Emperor might not be a practical option](https:\/\/www.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/l5b0m4\/were_concubines_mandatory_to_have_in_imperial\/gl44xim\/) but in short, political ties to important families, increasing chances of children, cosmology to reflect Heaven and good medical practice with balancing yin and yang.<br \/>The later Han's selection process was that an officer of the imperial household and a eunuch, accompanied by a physiognomist, toured the capital area. They looked for ladies of virtue, beauty and respectable background (no crimes, magic, medicine, trade, handcraft) of between 13-20 sui. Leading families could either present their daughters to the inspectors or make arrangements to skip that, controllers and Dowagers inserting their own candidates (who just happened to be related). Also not unknown for an Emperor in the civil war when Han Empire collapsed  to spot someone they fancied, marriage via conquest, a \"we are sorry we rebelled, have this lady\"<br \/>In terms of background, the Later Han had background restrictions and any uncertainty, like with the He family who was the first from outside a certain seven families, could lead to rumours. But the Wei dynasty Empresses included a songstress (granted she became Empress after her husband died), an orphan servant (this led to some protest), a carriage maker's daughter (some sneering and protest), one from good background sent as a \"sorry we rebelled\". Policy towards those on the poor families depended on the dynasty, which families they wished to be aligned to, if they wanted to keep a distance from powerful families but there would be people from aristocratic backgrounds.<br \/>I'm unaware of anybody who felt it was shameful for their relative to enter the imperial harem. An ally inside the imperial palaces wasn't a bad thing,  but an Emperor or controller might not be too keen for someone from the greatest families to have someone inside the harem and potentially getting too powerful or influential.<br \/>Sources: Fire Over Luoyang by Rafe De Crespigny<br \/>Empress and Consorts by Robert Cutter and William Cromwell","answer_b":"A concubine was a woman in ancient China who was sexually available to a man other than her husband.  A man could have multiple concubines, but his wife was considered primary.  Concubines were generally selected from among the upper classes, and it was considered a great honor for a woman to be selected as a concubine.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither answer completely answers the question,  but Answer A is long and rambling.  It's hard to follow and doesn't indicate that concubines were a fixture of families outside of the emperor's court.\nI believe answer A includes the false assumption that only emperors had concubines.  This is not true.\nI believe they both answered all aspects of the question, but answer A did that only from the perspective of the royal family.\nAnswer A was not easy to follow.  It assumes prior knowledge and has odd sentences:\n\nIn terms of what's the deal, I wrote a bit about [why a monogamous Emperor might not be a practical option](https:\/\/www.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/l5b0m4\/were_concubines_mandatory_to_have_in_imperial\/gl44xim\/) but in short, political ties to important families, increasing chances of children, cosmology to reflect Heaven and good medical practice with balancing yin and yang.\n\nLeading families could either present their daughters to the inspectors or make arrangements to skip that, controllers and Dowagers inserting their own candidates (who just happened to be related\n\nIn terms of background, the Later Han had background restrictions and any uncertainty, like with the He family who was the first from outside a certain seven families, could lead to rumours. \n\nThese sentences don't read well they are difficult to understand.\n\nI believe some of answer A is irrelevant: \n\n. But the Wei dynasty Empresses included a songstress (granted she became Empress after her husband died), an orphan servant (this led to some protest), a carriage maker's daughter (some sneering and protest), one from good background sent as a \"sorry we rebelled\". \n\nI don't think either had info that was factually incorrect.\n\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"I realize The King\u2019s Man was very much not a historically accurate movie. But there was a trench warfare scene that caught my eye.<br \/>Essentially Germans and English send scouting parties to no man\u2019s land. The two meet and, using sign language, agree that gunfire will mean the end of all of them. They all put down their firearms and proceed to quietly engage in vicious knife\/club fighting. Of course when someone finally breaks down and uses a pistol the trenches on either side erupt with gun fire killing almost all involved parties.<br \/>Any accuracy to this? Quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land.","answer_a":"Shortly, yes . Scouting missions into No Man's Land did happen and were undertaken with stealth and little firearms. Melee weapons such as clubs, hatchets, and sharpened entrancing tools were common place weapons and there is even evidence of spears being used in assaults.  German forces, as well as some Allied units, utilized armor for scouting missions as well. <br \/>In fact, there were entire German squads outfitted with melee weapons and armor that carried out nighttime missions and specialized trench attacks thought the Western Front. Granted, the movie takes liberties with this but the foundation is there. As for the firing at the least sound or a single gunshot--- there are accounts that mention these things happening in both first hand accounts as well as secondary sources. <br \/>A few sources to point you to:<br \/>There are several books that mention this, especially war diaries and secondary sources. Here are a few:<br \/>Keegan, John-- The First World War<br \/>Murray, Nicholas. The Rocky Road to the Great War: The Evolution of Trench Warfare to 1914.<br \/>Ellis, John.  Eye-Deep in Hell \u2013 Life in the Trenches 1914\u20131918<br \/>Johnson, Thomas M., and Fletcher Pratt. The Lost Battalion<br \/>Gudmundsson, Bruce I. Stormtroop Tactics: Innovation in the German Army, 1914-1918<br \/>Lengel, Edward. To Conquer Hell: The Meuse-Argonne, 1918.<br \/>Sheldon, J. The German Army on the Somme: 1914\u20131916. <br \/>Yockelson, Mitchell. Forty-Seven Days: How Pershing's Warriors Came of Age to Defeat at the German Army in World War I<br \/>I wholeheartedly recommend Gudmundsson and Ellis.<br \/>Edited: I had these readily at hand as I used them on as references earlier in my academic life and they currently are on my bookshelf.","answer_b":"There is some accuracy to the idea of quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land. This did happen on occasion, though it was not nearly as common as depicted in the movie. One famous example of this occurred during World War I at the Battle of the Somme. On the first day of the battle, British and German soldiers found themselves in close quarters in no man\u2019s land. They began fighting with whatever they had, including knives, bayonets, and even their bare hands. This continued until nightfall, when both sides retreated to their own trenches.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the more detailed answer.  Neither A or B contain false assumptions.\nA does a better job of considering many aspects of the answer, but neither of them ignore things in the question.  Grammar is good.  Both are well formulated and easy to follow.  Neither really has irrelevant information.\nThe end of answer B :\n\nOne famous example of this occurred during World War I at the Battle of the Somme. On the first day of the battle, British and German soldiers found themselves in close quarters in no man\u2019s land. They began fighting with whatever they had, including knives, bayonets, and even their bare hands. This continued until nightfall, when both sides retreated to their own trenches.\n\nCould lead you to believe this is a scenario like the one the question described.  The example provided here in question B is an example of men surprised to see the enemy and fighting with whatever they had - not an agreed upon fighting strategy."}
{"question":"I have read on this subreddit before that it was not unheard of for medieval nuns writing about Jesus and God in very erotic, or seemingly erotic, terms. I was wondering if there is any compiled lists of this medieval thirst poetry or what are some more famous examples of it?","answer_a":"Yes, this was absolutely a thing \u2013 and a reasonably widespread thing at that. Quite a lot of medieval religious women practiced aversion of mystical theology which incorporated a significant erotic element. This tended to revolve around casting Jesus as a bridegroom figure, with whomthe mystic envisioned themselves achieving spiritual, mystical union with. It\u2019s worth noting that it was by no means only women practicing this kind of spiritual experience. Indeed, one of the most prominent examples of this practice is St Bernard of Clairvaux\u2019s (1090-1153) sermons on the Song of Songs, in which he makes use of strongly sexualised imagery to describe union with Christ (and then promptly chastises his audience for their dirty minds \u2013 good consistentapproach there Bernard, A+).<br \/>However, it\u2019s certainly the women who are the most famous for this practice, and it does seem to have been a largely female (andcertainly feminised) form of mysticism. To the best of my knowledge, there\u2019s not a compiled list, simply because there\u2019s a huge amount of the stuff. Poetry is prominent, but there\u2019s also many prose accounts of mystical visions and experiences. There is an (important) caveat that the actual writer of these experiences can differ \u2013 in some cases it is the mystic herself, but in many other it\u2019s a male (usually mendicant) confessor or spiritual director. This can be a very significant filter on the voice that we can access, and can play a part in homogenising or \u201cflattening\u201d the texts.<br \/>In terms of the content, \u201cthirst poetry\u201d is an interesting modern analogy, but it\u2019s important to remember that the erotic content of works like this is (at least theoretically) very much the means to the end, which is complete and total union with the divine. Much mystical theology works in an apophatic way \u2013 this means that God is conceptualised as the ultimate negative, completely unknown and unknowable. Due to this fundamentally unreachable nature, a variety of intellectual strategies are employed to try and bridge this epistemological gap, of which the use of the erotic mode of expression is just one. It\u2019s also worth noting that one could quite equally look at some of this \u201cerotic\u201d language and categorise it as being about violent behaviour instead. See for example Beatrice of Nazareth\u2019s description of love:<br \/>*\u201cMeantime, when love acts in the heart so vehemently and riotously, it becomes so excessive and exuberant in the soul that the soul thinks its heart has been wounded in many and grave ways.... So it seems that its veins are opened and its blood is boiling out, its marrow is withered and its legs are weak, its chest burns and its throat is dry.... And the soul thus feels love acting riotously within it, sparing nothing, uncontrollably seizing and consuming everything within the soul like a devouring fire\u2026\u201d*<br \/>Or Mechthild of Magdeburg\u2019s description of the union with the Godhead:<br \/>*\u201cShe is captured in the first experience*  <br \/>*When God kisses her in sweet union.*  <br \/>*She is assailed with many a holy thought*  <br \/>*That she not waver when she mortifies her flesh.*  <br \/>*She is bound by the power of the Holy Spirit,*  <br \/>*And her bliss is indeed manifold.*  <br \/>*She is slapped with the great powerlessness*  <br \/>*Of not being able to enjoy without interruption eternal light\u201d*<br \/>I\u2019m not saying these works are *about* violence specifically, just that they\u2019re not either uncomplicatedly erotic, or using eroticism as the primary meaning of the text.<br \/>Famous examples \u2013 probably the most widely known these days are Margery Kempe (experiencing something of a renaissance recently) and St Catherine of Siena. Examples do, however, multiply - Dorothea of Montau, Marguerite Porete, Mechthild of Magdeburg, Hadewijch of Antwerp \u2013 the list goes on. I\u2019d suggest that Kempe and St Catherine are probably the easiest to find editions of the complete text, though I\u2019d not swear to that.<br \/>If you want some good reading on the subject, a classic text is C. Walker-Bynum, *Fragmentation and Redemption* (New York: Zone Books, 1992). A broader (and possibly more accessible) work is E. A. Petroff (ed), *Medieval Women\u2019s Visionary Literature*, (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1986). There is a wealth of more recent writing on the topic, but those are good starting points.<br \/>Edit: formatting. Jesus, reddit.","answer_b":"Bynum also covers this in [Holy Feast and Holy Fast: The Religious Significance of Food to Medieval Women (The New Historicism: Studies in Cultural Poetics Book 1)](https:\/\/smile.amazon.com\/dp\/B003AU4J0O\/ref=cm_sw_r_apan_glt_X3X5ZZVNW0XMJP1QQ734) (University of California: 1988). It was my first introduction to it, and contextualises the sort of bodily piety that gave rise to the erotics of God.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is astounding complete where answer B does not seem to be the full answer, reads like it was the middle of an answer.  Answer A does consider all aspects of the questions -and then some, where answer B simply provides a suggested reference.  Answer A is quite long, but is well formulated and easy to follow.  Answer A may have some information that is irrelevant. Everything after this sentence:\n\n It\u2019s also worth noting that one could quite equally look at some of this \u201cerotic\u201d language and categorise it as being about violent behaviour instead.\n\nis a discussion of how the erotic portions can be interpreted a violent - it goes on for quite awhile.   \n\nAnswer A has some grammar issues:\nThere are multiple examples of words that run together - no space.\n(andcertainly feminised) \n consistentapproach \n\nInformation in both are correct.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"Why can't Jeff Bezos or the top 5 richest simply end world hunger or homelessness? I've started to wonder this more and more. A guy like. Bezos could end hunger or give everyone who is homeless a place to start, but doesn't. Why is that? It seems so simple to do","answer_a":"There are a number of reasons why the world's richest people cannot simply end hunger or homelessness. First, hunger and homelessness are complex problems that require more than just financial resources to solve. Addressing hunger and homelessness requires a coordinated effort from governments, NGOs, and private individuals and organizations. Second, even if the world's richest people were to donate all of their wealth to ending hunger and homelessness, it would not be enough. The scale of the problem is simply too large. It is estimated that it would cost $30 billion per year to end hunger, and $20 billion per year to end homelessness. Third, the world's richest people are not all philanthropists. Some may be reluctant to donate their wealth to causes like ending hunger and homelessness, because they do not believe that these problems can be solved, or because they do not think it is their responsibility to solve them.","answer_b":"He doesn't have enough money, not nearly enough.<br \/>700M people live is World Bank \"extreme poverty\", less than $2 per day in total income.  This was 2B people in 1990.<br \/>To be only \"poor\" you need $48 per day in income.  That's $33.6B per day.  Jeff Bezos has $200B, so his entire fortune would be spent in 6 days.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A does a better job answering the original questions and backs it up with several points. It starts by stating that \"hunger and homelessness are complex problems\" and \"requires a coordinated effort from governments, NGOs, and private individuals and organizations.\" Likewise, it states, \"the world's richest people are not all philanthropists.\" All of these points are true, and the world's richest people would be unable to solve homelessness even if they wanted to.\n\nAnswer B is correct but only focuses on Jeff Bezos. It states some figures about the number of people living in extreme poverty and how if Jeff Bezos spent his entire net worth on solving poverty, it would be spent in 6 days. While those numbers may or may not be correct, it can be said that the cost of eliminating poverty is beyond the scope of a few wealthy individuals. \n\nThat said, answer A is better written, easy to follow, and provides evidence to support their point. Answer B had some grammatical issues, but it was understandable. \n\n\n"}
{"question":"why do some currencies have an incredibly large number for such a small value of money? For example, 10,000 S.Korean Won is about \u00a36.20.  So isn't it impractical that 1 won is a tiny fraction of a penny and basically has no value?","answer_a":"I\u2019m guessing you\u2019ve been watching \u201csquid game\u201d and googled the amount of money the players were set to earn at the end and throughout the series\u2026\ud83d\ude05 bcz I did the same if that\u2019s the reason!","answer_b":"Two reasons. Their currency is based on the smallest unit so a Korean Won would be like a US penny. And because their currency has less value so you need more of it to reach an equivalent value of a stronger currency.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better choice. While short, it states, \"Their currency is based on the smallest unit so a Korean Won would be like a US penny.\" That is mostly correct, but the wording could be better. The second part, \"their currency has less value, so you need more of it to reach an equivalent value of a stronger currency.\" explains that the Won is a weaker currency. While that may be true to some extent, it does not answer why 10,000 Won equals 6.20 GBP. \n\nAs for answer A, it does really not contain any factual information and could be considered irrelevant since it does not answer the original question. Both answers were short, so there is not much more to add.\n\n"}
{"question":"Why do some countries measure their currencies in large units? For example in Vietnam, lunch can be bought for 50,000 VD and in South Korea, apartments can cost several MILLION Won. Why do some countries use such large denominations?","answer_a":"It is actually the inflation's side effect.<br \/>The money worth less than the paper they paint it on. So, they use a higher number.<br \/>You can see how it begins (again) in Turkish Lira. In 2007, Turkey removed 6 zeroes from the money (ie 10 million TLs become 10 TLs). The $\/TL was something like 1.20.<br \/>Now, $\/TL is 8.65. TL loses it's worth. <br \/>To somewhat counter that, countries issue higher bills. So that the minimum wages can keep up against the inflation and people can afford basic stuff like electricity bills and such.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why some countries might choose to measure their currency in large units. One reason is that it can help to combat inflation. When prices are rising rapidly, it can be difficult to keep track of the value of goods and services if the currency is divided into small units. It can also be difficult to make change for small purchases. If the currency is measured in larger units, it can be easier for people to keep track of the value of goods and services and to make change. Another reason for using large units of currency is that it can make transactions more efficient. For example, if you are buying a car for $1,000, it is more efficient to pay in one $1,000 bill than to pay in ten $100 bills. Finally, large units of currency can also make it easier to track money laundering and other illicit financial activities. If all transactions are conducted in large units of currency, it can be easier to track the flow of money and to identify suspicious activity.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better choice, but both of them are difficult to follow for someone that may not have a background in economics. Likewise, both answers have several grammatical errors and were probably not written by native English speakers. However, both correctly state that using larger bills has to do with inflation.\n\nI chose answer B because it provides several examples of why some countries may use larger bills, such as buying a car. It states, \"if you are buying a car for $1,000, it is more efficient to pay in one $1,000 bill than to pay in ten $100 bills.\" This is correct, making transactions more efficient and because it is easier to make change. However, the last part about using large bills to help track money laundering is speculative. While there may be some truth to the statement, \"If all transactions are conducted in large units of currency, it can be easier to track the flow of money and to identify suspicious activity.\" this is not the main reason countries print larger bills. It is mostly explained by inflation, which is stated in both answers. \n\n"}
{"question":"How are countries in billions of dollars in debt? Who do they owe? I\u2019ve never really understood this. Do all these countries borrow money from each other back and forth? Tf is going on?","answer_a":"Most debt is in the form of treasury bonds, which are essentially IOU's from the government in question. Basically, the government sells a bond to someone, and after a set amount of time that bond can be redeemed for it's face value, and with interest. The functional value of a bond is built entirely on the value of the government (or company) that backs the bond; if that government is perceived as stable, then the bond retains value, because there's a perception that the bond will be paid when it comes due.<br \/>In turn, bonds are an investment. They're, generally, slightly better than cash, entirely because bonds grow in face value over time, whereas cash does not.","answer_b":"Yes they do. Example is America borrowing from China. What happens is America issues bonds. When someone purchases a bond they are essentially lending there money for a specified amount of time. (In bond language it\u2019s called a term). Once the term of the bond is fulfilled America conducts another bond offering (lending more money ) in order to pay down some of the debt with the proceeds it collects from a bond sale. It\u2019s called rolling over the debt. It\u2019s a continuous cycle that America will never get out of.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers are correct, but I think A does a better job covering the details of government borrowing. It mentions that countries finance debt by issuing bonds and states they \"are essentially IOU's from the government in question.\" Likewise, they are issued for a set period of time and pay interest. In addition, it is also mentioned they are investments and slightly better than holding cash. \n\nAnswer B is also correct and provides an example of China buying US government bonds. It gives a more technical definition of a bond \"In bond language it's called a term.\" and states, \"Once the term of the bond is fulfilled America conducts another bond offering.\" However, the last part, \"It's a continuous cycle that America will never get out of. \"Is speculation and could be considered irrelevant. That was the main reason for choosing over B. \n\nBoth answers are factually correct and easy to follow, even for someone that does not have a background in economics. It should be pointed out that many developing countries borrow from multilateral institutions like the IMF and World Bank. This was not mentioned in answers A and B."}
{"question":". What stops a 1000 dollar check made out to cash from being used as a 1000 dollar bill. A bit confusing but what I mean by this is say, a guy writes a 1000 dollar check (made out to cash)to buy a quad. The guy receiving the check, instead of cashing it out, uses the original check to then go buy his own quad and so on.","answer_a":"Because checks are not legal tender. They are an IOU to be deposited from one account to another, and are therefore mere debit checks, hence the name. <br \/>You have to use legal tender provided by the Treasury as cash.","answer_b":"The risk of the check bouncing stops that. <br \/>Someone wants to pay you with cash?  Great - now you have cash!  <br \/>Someone wants to pay you with a check made out to cash, which was written on the account of some other third guy that you never heard of?  Riiiiiight - your immediate first thought is going to be \"well that's *clearly* a scam of some kind\", even if it really is legit.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"While both answers make good points, A is the better choice. It starts by saying that \"checks are not legal tender\" and \" They are an IOU.\" This is correct and best describes how a check works. Answer B is also correct when it states, \"The risk of the check bouncing stops that.\" That is why checks are sometimes used in scams since the scammer is long gone before you will even know they don't have the funds to cover the check and was mentioned here \"Riiiiiight - your immediate first thought is going to be \"well that's *clearly* a scam of some kind\", even if it really is legit.\" However, checks written as cash do not always indicate a scam. In that regard, you could say it is a misconception or incorrect.\n\nAnswer A is written better, more concise, and accurately answers the original question. It was easy to follow and well formulated. Answer B is not really grammatically incorrect, but answer A is better overall.\n"}
{"question":"what exactly is money and why can\u2019t we just print more i mean, we created it for currency because of the gold rush or something right??? why did we decide this was best and why can\u2019t we just orint more money ??? what gives a paper bill the value ???","answer_a":"The concept of money is a human invention, not a natural occurrence. Money is an abstract idea that represents a unit of exchange. It is a tool that we use to buy and sell goods and services.<br \/><br \/>The value of money is based on trust. People trust that money will retain its value over time, and that it can be used to purchase goods and services. Money is also a store of value, meaning it can be saved and used in the future.<br \/><br \/>The supply of money is limited. Central banks can print more money, but this can cause inflation, which reduces the value of money. Money is also a scarce resource, which is why we use it as a unit of exchange.<br \/><br \/>There are different types of money, including fiat money, commodity money, and cryptocurrency. Fiat money is money that is not backed by a physical commodity, such as gold or silver. Commodity money is money that is backed by a physical commodity. Cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency that uses cryptography to secure its transactions.","answer_b":"The US uses a Fiat Currency and its value is derived from the supply and demand for it like anything else.<br \/>Governments can and do print money. Theoretically they could print money to pay for all government services, so why don't they?<br \/>The answer is inflation. The more money in circulation the less its overall value.<br \/>Ever see a loaf of bread go for $1000? You can, and you will!<br \/>Post WW2 German and several African nations are examples of extreme inflation, where the government kept printing money but it crippled its value. So while it helped in the short term to fix their problems, printing money eventually caused the money to be worth less than toilet paper.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer. It is close to the textbook definition of money as a unit of exchange used to buy and sell goods and services. In addition, it addresses an important aspect of money, \"The value of money is based on trust.\" This is correct, and people have to believe it will retain its value. Likewise, it mentions that the supply is limited, and printing too much money can cause inflation and reduce its value. Lastly, answer A states, \"There are different types of money, including fiat money, commodity money, and cryptocurrency.\" All statements in answer A are factual, easy to follow, and answer the original question.\n\nAnswer B is correct but mostly focuses on what happens if you print too much money. It gives a few historical examples that may be hard to follow.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"Why can't currencies change their value to be in line with other currencies? For example, Japanese Yen, Central African Francs and other currencies all have exchange rates to USD\/GBP of decimal places. Why can't 1 CAF or JPY = 1 USD\/GBP?","answer_a":"One of the main reasons why currencies can't change their value to be in line with other currencies is because of the different economic conditions in different countries. For example, Japan has a much stronger economy than the Central African Republic, so the Japanese Yen is worth more than the Central African Franc. If all currencies were worth the same, then it would be very difficult for people to trade goods and services between different countries.","answer_b":"They can, but that would require effort by someone. If, for example, someone wanted JPY to be equal to one USD they would have to buy lots and lots of JPY and pay for it with USD. And I mean LOTS.  <br \/>Central banks sometimes do this, for example the central bank of Denmark holds the Danisk Krone (DKK) at a fixed rate (not 1 to 1, but a still a fixed rate) relative to the Euro (EUR).<br \/>This is expensive, tedious, and there isn't really much point so almost nobody bothers with it. Denmark does it because they wanted to keep the DKK while still being part of the EU, and that was the compromise they reached.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This is another question where both answers address different aspects of the original question. Answer A starts by stating, \"One of the main reasons why currencies can't change their value to be in line with other currencies is because of the different economic conditions in different countries.\" That is not factually, as answer B correctly states, \"Central banks sometimes do this.\"  They often intervene in currency markets. While answer B is correct in stating it \"is expensive, tedious,\" countries prop up or devalue their currencies for various reasons, such as boosting exports. \n\nHowever, answer A is clearer and focuses on the economic aspect of a currency relative to another. Likewise, it is easier to follow for a person that may not have a background in economics and finance. For that reason, answer A is the better option. Both answers are factual, grammatically correct, and contain relevant information.\n"}
{"question":"With seemingly half of downtown Manhatten's commercial real estate being vacant, why do real estate agents prefer having a venue vacant over just lowering prices? I'm not a U.S. citizen, but the whole thing going on on [Louis Rossman's YouTube Channel](https:\/\/www.youtube.com\/watch?v=wpC4IGAkgok) (who runs the Right to Repair movement, but also makes video about the ridiculousness of New York real estate) intrigues me. <br \/>You see hundreds upon hundreds vacant stores 'for rent', while they still ask the same ridiculous prices (up to $55,000 a month for a store). Rossman has seen stores that have been vacant and for rent for literally over 5 years, while te price stays the same. <br \/>What do real estate brokers gain from this? Do they just hope that \\*someone\\* jumps the boat and deny that prices are too high? Enlighten me :)","answer_a":"a lot of it is investment for speculation. Rich people want to own and trade buildings like stocks, they don't want to be landlords or property owners. They plan to hold it for 10 years and sell it for 87 million dollars more than they bought it for and just would rather not deal with the hassle of doing a bunch of stuff to get 800 dollars a month in rent.","answer_b":"if you ask for a lower rent, then the valuation for your property drops since that is typically tied to the rent. obviously it should drop anyway, but that happens more slowly and especially if the building was bought on credit or the building itself is collateral for a credit, they sometimes cant afford to have the value drop.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to choose the better answer as both are correct but focus on different points.\n\nStarting with answer A, some of it is speculation, and the owners may not be interested in being a landlord, even though it means forfeiting potential rental income. They may be wealthy, own several properties, and don't want to deal with the hassle of tenants, as stated here: \"They plan to hold it for 10 years and sell it for 87 million dollars more than they bought it for and just would rather not deal with the hassle of doing a bunch of stuff to get 800 dollars a month in rent.\" \n\nAnswer B addresses another aspect, the correlation between the cost of rent and property values. While it is difficult to mention an exact number, there is a reason why a 1,000-square-foot apartment in the city can rent for more than a 2,000-square-foot house in the suburbs. In theory, lowering the rent would likely affect the property value, but it would happen over time. However, the amount is debatable. Answer B is correct about the second part, relating to properties being financed or used as collateral. The owners are trying to avoid having the property value drop too much.\n\nBoth answers do not address why many stores in Manhattan are vacant. This partly has to do with high rent, and many small businesses can afford it. They are grammatically correct and easy to follow, but this is a complicated topic."}
{"question":"I keep hearing that 20% of all US dollars were printed in the last year, so why isn\u2019t the inflation rate 20%? ","answer_a":"Are they referring to actual printed money? If so, I\u2019m sure quite a bit of currency was withdrawn from circulation, as well.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why the inflation rate is not 20% despite the fact that 20% of all US dollars were printed in the last year. First, it takes time for new money to enter the economy and start circulating. Second, not all of the new money will end up being used to purchase goods and services; some of it may be saved or used to pay off debt, for example. Finally, the inflation rate is calculated using a basket of goods and services, so it may not reflect the impact of new money on the prices of specific goods and services.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Obviously, several factors contribute to inflation, but B provides a better answer to the original question. It states, \"There are a few reasons why the inflation rate is not 20%\" and gives several examples such as \"not all of the new money will end up being used to purchase goods and services\" and \"the inflation rate is calculated using a basket of goods and services.\" \n\nBoth of these explanations are correct and are some of the reasons why even if 20% of all US dollars in circulation were printed in the last year, inflation has not increased by the same amount. Of course, there is more to inflation than is provided by answer B, but it is concise, factual, and easy to understand for someone that does not have a background in economics. \n\nAnswer A only addresses printed bills and is correct in stating that bills are taken out of circulation. However, that is just one part of the money supply. "}
{"question":"How the tax rates are determined by governments? I would assume that governments estimate the amount of extra money they need to finance public healthcare, pensions, infrastructure improvements, etc. They make the projection for the coming years, add some safety gap on top and then calculate the tax rate based on this required amount of extra income. Is that true?<br \/>If so, such calculation leads us to a flat tax rate. If we are talking about a progressive tax, how are the decisions about tax bands and rates for each band made?","answer_a":"Governments use a variety of methods to determine tax rates. In some cases, rates are set based on the amount of money the government needs to raise to fund specific programs or initiatives. In other cases, tax rates may be based on a percentage of income, with higher earners paying a higher rate. Additionally, some governments use a progressive tax system, in which tax rates increase as income increases.","answer_b":"You'd be wrong.<br \/>The legislature gets input from economic calculations, in the US from the Congressional Budget Office, but more often than not the numbers are chosen to send political messages.<br \/>There are very, very few flat tax systems.  Almost all systems are extremely progressive, what's the point of collecting taxes from some poor person who you make social safety net payments to?  That would just be government using taxes to collect its own money.  Tax bands are set politically, trading off the influence of the rich with the influence of the anti-rich.  (poor \u2260 anti-rich)  Poor people have little money; whereas anti-rich people don't want other people to have as much money as they already have.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to choose between them since both answers make good points. Answer A provides an overall explanation of how governments determine tax rates, which is factually correct. Answer B also brings up, \"The legislature gets input from economic calculations, in the US from the Congressional Budget Office, but more often than not the numbers are chosen to send political messages.\" Both statements are correct. While much information comes from the CBO, taxes have a political aspect. However, the second part of the answer discussing the influence of rich and poor is open to debate and could be borderline irrelevant. \n\nAs for being well formulated and easy to follow, answer A won out in this regard and was my main reason for choosing it over answer B. It was clear, concise, and didn't contain speculative information like answer B.\n\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"What is a mutual fund and how does it work? ","answer_a":"You\u2019ll probably get a better answer, but basically someone invests all of the money paid in to it and you share all the gains and losses together. So you will almost always slowly grow over time. Probably pretty in line with what ever the overall market grew.","answer_b":"A mutual fund is like carpooling but for investments. <br \/>Instead of you buying and selling your individual shares of companies directly on the exchange, you buy \"units\" of the mutual fund. The managers of the fund (investment experts... usually... hopefully) pool all of the money from individual investors (you) and use it to buy\/invest in the stocks. Any gains that the fund makes through regular \"buy low,sell high\" or dividends are split back to the individual fund investors (you) in proportion of units held. <br \/>The fund managers will charge a small amount for their \"expertise\" but otherwise just invest and manage according to the mutual fund's portfolio mandate. Like for example, some funds invest purely in R&D, others only in tech or wireless communication, others in green energy etc.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B provides a more concise answer defining a mutual fund and how it works. It is clear and easy to follow for someone that does not have a financial background. It covers the main points of how they work and are managed. Likewise, it mentions that mutual funds usually have mandates such as high growth, a certain level of risk, or they only invest in certain industries such as tech or green energy. The answer is factual and does not contain any irrelevant or incorrect information. \n\nAnswer A was not easy to follow and did not cover the main points about how a mutual fund operates.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"why do countries with a fiat currency still use tax? Considering that fiat money isn\u2019t tied to anything tangible, it doesn\u2019t seem to make sense having to tax? Is it that the only purpose of tax today is redistribution of wealth?","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why countries with a fiat currency still use tax. First, tax revenue is one of the main ways that governments fund public goods and services. Without tax revenue, governments would have to rely on other sources of funding, which might not be as stable or reliable. Second, tax helps to reduce income inequality by redistributing wealth from the rich to the poor. This is especially important in countries with a large income gap between the rich and the poor. Finally, tax can be used to discourage certain activities that are harmful to the economy or society, such as smoking or pollution.","answer_b":"How would governments pay for social services?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"While answer B is correct and direct to the point, it only covers one aspect of taxation. Taxes are used to pay for social services and many goods and services like roads, utilities, and employees. With that said, answer A goes into more detail about why governments tax their citizens. Without quoting the entire passage, it states that taxes are used to provide public services. They are a stable form of revenue, help reduces income inequality, and can be used to discourage certain activities like pollution. \n\nIn that sense, answer A is more complete and does a better job answering the question. Likewise, it was easy to follow, factual, and well formulated.\n\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"Would burning money help with the inflation problem in Venezuela for example? ","answer_a":"No.<br \/>Paper money is a tiny fraction of the actual money.  Most money is just numbers in bank accounts.","answer_b":"Hyper inflation occurs when people, lenders, foreign companies e.t.c lose confidence in the currency. <br \/>If I'm a shop owner and I usually sell an apple for 1 coin. However I'm not convinced in a month I'll be able to buy myself enough food\/pay rent e.t.c by selling apples for 1 coin. So I raise my prices today to protect myself against currency changes in the future. This of course spirals out of control because everyone starts doing this.<br \/>Because the value is changing fast, there is no point saving money, so everyone tries to spend all their money at once before it's value is rapidly eroded to zero. Often money will be spent the same day it is earned - and everyone spending every penny every day pushes up prices more and the cycle continues. <br \/>The only way to fix the issue is to make people trust the currency again. This is usually done by adopting a stable foreign currency or pegging your currency to a foreign currency. (Brazil effectively stopped hyperinflation).","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B provides a good explanation of hyperinflation with evidence to back it up. It covers the basic idea of how things can spiral out of control and how people spend their paycheck as quickly as possible since the value of money can depreciate by the hour, as was the case in Venezuela.\n\nHere is an example: \"So I raise my prices today to protect myself against currency changes in the future. This of course spirals out of control because everyone starts doing this.\" Likewise, answer B states a case of a country exiting hyperinflation. \"The only way to fix the issue is to make people trust the currency again. This is usually done by adopting a stable foreign currency or pegging your currency to a foreign currency. (Brazil effectively stopped hyperinflation).\" In the case of Brazil, this is correct, faith was restored in the currency, and inflation dropped considerably in the following years. \n\nIn terms of answering the original question about burning money, answer A states no. Answer B does not specifically answer the question, but it can be gathered from the answer that they are saying no. Both answers are easy to follow and grammatically correct, although A is on the short side. Likewise, there was no irrelevant or incorrect information.\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"How do credit\/debit cards work? What is the process of putting money in and getting it out? ","answer_a":"A credit or debit card is basically just an easy way to allow a shop to speak to your bank.<br \/>First you go into the bank, and you either deposit some cash into your account (debit), or you ask the bank nicely to cover you, and promise that you will pay them back at the end of the month (credit).<br \/>Then you can go shopping. You get to the till with your products, which you now need to pay for, but instead of handing over cash directly, you ask the shop to deal directly with your bank. The shop phones up the bank and asks them to take X amount of money out of your account, then nip over to the shops own bank and give it to them on your behalf, which they do.<br \/>That is pretty much how a credit or debit card works, just automated with computers...","answer_b":"Debit cards are linked to a bank account and whenever you pay using a debit card, the amount is deducted from the bank account on completion of the transaction. So, instead of withdrawing and handing over cash for a purchase, you can swipe the card.<br \/>Credit cards come with a credit limit and a defined billing cycle (generally monthly). So, you can make purchases using the credit card upto the defined credit limit. The bill is generated as per the defined billing cycle and you are required to settle it just like the bills for any other utilities.<br \/>Hope this helps.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B better answers the question. It provides a straightforward answer about how debit and credit cards work and notes the distinction between them. A debit card debits your bank account immediately when you use it to pay for a good or service. A credit card debits the account of the card issuer, usually a bank. Essentially, it is a loan you pay partially or in full the following month. \n\nAnswer B points out the difference here: Debit cards are linked to a bank account, and whenever you pay using a debit card, ... you can swipe the card.\" For credit cards, a defined billing cycle (generally monthly)...and you are required to settle it just like the bills for any other utilities.\"\n\nAnswer A is correct about how credit and debit cards work, but the explanation is confusing. It is almost irrelevant since that is not how they work, although it is explained at the end. \"The shop phones up the bank and asks them to take X amount of money out of your account.\" It is done electronically, almost instantly. \n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"There is all this talk about global USD shortage despite trillions that were printed in the last 2 years, what gives? ","answer_a":"If you go back in time prior to 1990 most of the world's debt is denominated in the local currency of the country where the debt was made.  So if I'm an Indian oil refiner and I want to get a loan to build a new plant, I go to a bank and get a loan that I have to pay back in Indian Rupees.  Similarly, if I'm the government of Vietnam and I want to get a loan to build a new highway, I'll go to a bank and get a loan that needs to be paid back in Vietnamese Dong (no they're not cutting people's penises off, that's what the currency there is called).<br \/>The problem with this is that most of the loans that are being made to countries outside of the US\/EU\/Japan are being made by the US\/EU\/Japan.  Countries outside of that area are also incredibly corrupt.  So what happens when the Vietnamese government can't afford to pay back its loan?  It prints a shitload of Dong and uses the freshly printed currency to pay off its debt.  Because of how many Dong have been printed to satisfy this debt, the value of the Dong collapses and the lender is left with a pile of worthless currency.<br \/>The solution that lenders in the US\/EU\/Japan came up with for this problem was to make it so that borrowers outside of those regions have to pay back their loans in dollars.  Now it doesn't matter how much the Vietnamese government devalues its currency - it still has to pay back the same amount of dollars.  <br \/>Most corporate\/national debt is made in the form of 20 or 30 year bonds.  In a 20 year bond you make a small interest payment each year.  Then, at the end of the 20 years, you pay back *the entirety of what you were initially loaned*.  <br \/>So imagine you take a $100 loan, paid back over 20 years with an interest rate of 1%.  Each year you pay the lender $1 (1% of $100).  Then on year 20 you pay $101 (the original $100 value of the loan plus your final interest payment).  That means that to make your debt payment for year 20, you need 101 times as many dollars as you did to make your payment in year 19.<br \/>Right now all of the early dollar denominated loans to the third world are starting the hit that point where the borrowers need to make that big, final payment.  That's causing a sudden surge in the need for companies and governments to get dollars.  <br \/>You can view the China Evergrande situation as being a direct result of this.  Evergrande needs to make the final payment on a lot of its 20\/30 year bonds right now.  It has physical assets with a sufficient value to do this (it owns a lot of land and buildings).  The problem is it can't hand the buildings to its creditors because of Chinese government restrictions on foreign land ownership.  It needs to sell the buildings to get dollars to pay off its loans.  But it needs so many dollars so quickly that its hard to find people that have that many dollars at once.","answer_b":"There are a few different factors at play here. First, the US dollar is still considered the global reserve currency, meaning that it is used more than any other currency for international transactions. This means that demand for dollars is always high, even when there is a lot of them in circulation.<br \/><br \/>Second, the trillions of dollars that were printed in the last two years were mostly used to bail out banks and other financial institutions. This money never actually made it into the hands of consumers, so it didn't really increase the overall money supply.<br \/><br \/>Lastly, the global economy is still recovering from the last recession, and many countries are still dealing with high levels of debt. This means that there is less demand for USD-denominated assets, and that the dollar is under more pressure than it has been in recent years.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better choice. While this is a complicated question, B sums it up more clearly. It starts by stating, \"There are a few different factors at play here.\" Overall, the answer was structured well and mentions, \"the US dollar is still considered the global reserve currency,\" which is correct and explains why it holds its value even though more dollars are in circulation. \n\nIn addition, answer B points out that most of the currency is not in circulation but held by banks, \"This money never actually made it into the hands of consumers, so it didn't increase the overall money supply.\" \n\nLastly, it goes on to describe the recession and high levels of debt. This brings up the fact that the dollar is under more pressure than in recent years, although how much of an impact that will have in the future is debatable.\n\nAs for Answer A, it was difficult to follow and contained some irrelevant information that didn't help develop the answer. Most notably, the part about corporate debt \"... That means that to make your debt payment for year 20, you need 101 times as many dollars as you did to make your payment in year 19.\" There were also several grammatical errors, but the person writing may not be a native English speaker, so that would be understandable.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"How devaluing your currency increases exports. ","answer_a":"You're Germany and exporting BMW's. A \u20ac40k car costs $50k in the US because a Euro is worth $1.25.<br \/>Euro is devalued so that \u20ac1 is $1. Now, that same \u20ac40K BMW only costs $40k in the US. Demand for a $40k BMW will be higher than the demand for the same car if it costs $50k. So there will be more demand for BMW exports. German workers still make same wages, (European) suppliers still get same money for parts, etc. but the factory will need to crank out more cars to keep up with increased demand.","answer_b":"Devaluing your currency makes your exports cheaper relative to other countries' exports. This increases demand for your exports, and can help your country's trade balance.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answers A and B answer the original question, but B provides an example of how devaluing a currency benefits exports. It uses an example of how a devalued Euro would boost Germany's exports of BMWs to the US. Likewise, it addresses an issue often overlooked when a currency is devalued. Most notably, the price of imported goods increases. Answer A answers this aspect of the question here: \"German workers still make same wages, (European) suppliers still get same money for parts, etc. but the factory will need to crank out more cars to keep up with increased demand.\" \n\nWhile the prices of goods imported from outside Europe would increase (assuming the Euro depreciated relative to other currencies), Answer A did take that into account, stating that \"(European) suppliers still get same money for parts.\" In theory, the demand for BMWs should increase. Answer B is factually correct while short and direct to the point. However, answer A is the better option since it provides an example of how currency devaluations can increase exports."}
{"question":"Why do we even have a debt ceiling if we just raise it every time we get close? ","answer_a":"If you want the US govt to go into default and not pay its bills then don\u2019t raise debt ceiling. If you want govt to continue paying its obligations then vote for it. Clinton was last potus to balance a budget and Nixon was last gop potus to balance a budget. Congress and every other potus is responsible for our debt.","answer_b":"The debt ceiling is a limit on how much money the federal government can borrow. It was put in place to help control government spending. Every time the government reaches the debt ceiling, Congress has to vote to raise it. Some people think that the debt ceiling is unnecessary and that we should just get rid of it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both questions are easy to follow, although answer A gets a little more political, stating which president from each party was the last to balance the budget. While answer A mentions the US government will go into default if the debt ceiling is not raised, answer B does a better job of answering the original question. It defines what a debt ceiling is and why it was put into place \"The debt ceiling is a limit on how much money the federal government can borrow.\" and \"It was put in place to help control government spending.\" \n\nIt also explains how the debt ceiling can be raised \"Congress has to vote to raise it.\" It also explains why some people believe it is unnecessary and should be done away with.\n\nIn terms of containing irrelevant information, you can argue that mentioning the last president from each party to balance the budget doesn't help answer the question. \"Clinton was last potus to balance a budget and Nixon was last gop potus to balance a budget.\" Likewise, answer A has some grammatical errors being that \"potus\" and \"gop\" should be capitalized.\n\n"}
{"question":"HOW does a Crypto coin's value go below its starting price? ","answer_a":"Money of any kind has no intrinsic value. There\u2019s no purpose for it except to be exchanged for something else<br \/>Therefore the value is based on how much exchange you believe you can do with it. So the value of it is just a measure of how much a group of people believe it is worth","answer_b":"There is no starting price. Cryptocurrency is worth what people that are willing to purchase it think it is worth.  There is no intrinsic value in cryptocurency.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better option, although both answers provide a basic definition of money. While national governments usually do not issue cryptocurrencies, the basic idea is the same. They fluctuate in value and are used to purchase things, although cryptocurrencies are not widely accepted as a form of payment as a national currency. It should be pointed out that both answers didn't directly answer how currencies go below their starting value. Likewise, cryptocurrencies operate somewhat differently since they are largely outside of the control of central banks. \n\nAnswer B was a little harder to follow, but they were very short answers, so there is not too much to add."}
{"question":"What are toll roads or \"turnpikes\" used for? Where does the money collected by toll roads go and what is it used for exactly, entering a new country is understanderble but they have toll roads on highways where there is no border so what is the purpose of these stops which take unnecessary fees??","answer_a":"There is a toll road near my house. It was built by a private company on private land. It represents a significant short-cut between two state-built roads. The company built the road, and collects tolls for its use, in an effort to make money.<br \/>So, in this case, the toll goes to repay the initial investment to acquire the land and build the road. It also goes toward providing snow removal, maintenance, and repair.","answer_b":"The money from the tolls usually goes towards maintaining the road, and\/or is like a travel tax that the state can use for other projects. Sometimes tolls are only there to cover the cost of constructing the road and then once it's paid off they take the toll off (that's less common though).","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A better answers the original question, although both could have gone into more detail. Starting with answer A, it explains why toll roads are constructed, although that is not the only reason. In the US and some countries, concessions are granted to private companies to build highways and charge tolls to recover their initial investment and make a profit. Answer A does address the latter point.\n\nOne point that was not addressed in either answer is express lanes. They are usually additional lanes added to existing highways where drivers can pay a fee to use them. However, the toll is waived in some areas if you have three or more occupants in your vehicle (HOV 3).\n\nThe other aspects of both answers were easy to follow and contained accurate information."}
{"question":"How do people get money from Crypto and what does burning mean? Also - how the hell did people invest in Bitcoin back in the day?","answer_a":"Burning is when you put enough energy into a material and it starts combusting with the oxygen around it emitting radiation. <br \/>Example : when you light a piece of paper it starts *burning*","answer_b":"Burning is when you send a crypto token to a wallet that does not have an access key. Without the key, no one can access the token and is lost. It's like burning money.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better choice. Answer A explains what burning means from a chemistry perspective, but the question was about Bitcoin. While that would apply to answer A, cryptocurrency does not have physical properties. Answer B explains what happens if you send Bitcoin to a wallet without an access key. If it is done that way, it is lost and cannot be retrieved, much like burning paper currency. \n\nWhile answer B explains what it means to burn Bitcoin, neither question addresses the second part of the original question about how people invested in Bitcoin back in the day."}
{"question":"What's the deal with concubines in Ancient China?  How were they selected?  Were any selected from the common classes or were they generally from upper class families?  Was it shameful or a great honor for your daughter or sister to be selected as a concubine?","answer_a":"In terms of what's the deal, I wrote a bit about [why a monogamous Emperor might not be a practical option](https:\/\/www.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/l5b0m4\/were_concubines_mandatory_to_have_in_imperial\/gl44xim\/) but in short, political ties to important families, increasing chances of children, cosmology to reflect Heaven and good medical practice with balancing yin and yang.<br \/>The later Han's selection process was that an officer of the imperial household and a eunuch, accompanied by a physiognomist, toured the capital area. They looked for ladies of virtue, beauty and respectable background (no crimes, magic, medicine, trade, handcraft) of between 13-20 sui. Leading families could either present their daughters to the inspectors or make arrangements to skip that, controllers and Dowagers inserting their own candidates (who just happened to be related). Also not unknown for an Emperor in the civil war when Han Empire collapsed  to spot someone they fancied, marriage via conquest, a \"we are sorry we rebelled, have this lady\"<br \/>In terms of background, the Later Han had background restrictions and any uncertainty, like with the He family who was the first from outside a certain seven families, could lead to rumours. But the Wei dynasty Empresses included a songstress (granted she became Empress after her husband died), an orphan servant (this led to some protest), a carriage maker's daughter (some sneering and protest), one from good background sent as a \"sorry we rebelled\". Policy towards those on the poor families depended on the dynasty, which families they wished to be aligned to, if they wanted to keep a distance from powerful families but there would be people from aristocratic backgrounds.<br \/>I'm unaware of anybody who felt it was shameful for their relative to enter the imperial harem. An ally inside the imperial palaces wasn't a bad thing,  but an Emperor or controller might not be too keen for someone from the greatest families to have someone inside the harem and potentially getting too powerful or influential.<br \/>Sources: Fire Over Luoyang by Rafe De Crespigny<br \/>Empress and Consorts by Robert Cutter and William Cromwell","answer_b":"A concubine was a woman in ancient China who was sexually available to a man other than her husband.  A man could have multiple concubines, but his wife was considered primary.  Concubines were generally selected from among the upper classes, and it was considered a great honor for a woman to be selected as a concubine.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer as it provides in-depth details on the purpose of concubines and who could become one, while Answer B gives a simple answer. The question does not contain any false assumptions and the answers are grammatically sound. Answer A provides explicit examples of concubines and provides the sources in which they gathered their information, in addition to explaining why concubines were chosen. Answer B is simple and does not provide any sources to back their claims, which is one of the key concepts when writing about history. For these reasons, Answer A is the better-written answer."}
{"question":"I was wondering if there was any historical references of a Leader employing a humanitarian crisis as a trap for an invading force in the way that the fictional character Marco Inaros succeeded to do on the Expanse?<br \/>Spoiler for anyone who intends on watching season 6, episode 3 of the Expanse, but I want to find if this was uniquely fictitious or if there\u2019s very real historical events I could also explore. Without needing to see the Expanse, I will give a quick run down of what happened:<br \/>As two navies fight for control in space, Earth vs the Outer Belt \u201cFree Navy,\u201d the Earth force intends to invade the Capitol city of Ceres station. It was important to establish a foothold in future attacks. Upon arrival, the invaders find that the city has been stripped of all food and supplies, and the residents left with only a few weeks of food before they would starve to death. What appeared to be an effortless victory ended as a humanitarian crisis draining resources and entrapping the Earth navy in a PR nightmare instead of decisive victory. <br \/>Has this ever been deployed in real life? Maybe in WWII with the prison camps or possibly (and if it\u2019s against the rules to mention, please skip), but modern times fall of Baghdad in the recent war in Iraq be considered a similar ploy? I doubted anything before mass media or before the value of life became more culturally valued \u2014 I could see barbaric or even crusade or colonizing invaders cutting down local peasants without concern for life.","answer_a":"That\u2019s is super interesting. Definitely not on purpose but had a similar effect. That\u2019s awesome. I\u2019m going to keep the thread open for any other historical references but I do appreciate this and it\u2019s 1 more than I expected to get","answer_b":"I mean, it was definitely not intentional, but as Confederate armies retreated from the banks of the Mississippi, along which some of the South's wealthiest and largest plantations were located, the Union was left guarding an enormous expanse, filled with tens of thousands of freedmen that desperately needed food, medicine and clothing. This created a giant humanitarian crisis that the Union Army was ill-equipped to handle. Their best attempts were to put the freedmen into \"Contraband Camps\" that were rife with disease and unsanitary conditions. Another approach was to lease abandoned and confiscated plantations to Northern factors, who would then employ the freedmen to grow cotton. But in any case the crisis was never completely solved, and it proved to be a constant drain in Union resources and manpower, an embarrassment for the Lincoln administration, and a military factor in that the need to patrol the territory diverted thousands of troops and occasionally had adverse effects in military operations. <br \/>However, this was not an intentional ploy on the part of the Confederates. If they had gotten their way the Union would never have occupied those territories, and the people they enslaved would have remained in their plantations under their control. The freedmen who remained and thus came under Union protection did so not because of the Confederates but in spite of them, as they refused to flee with their masters. Instead, they abandoned the plantations and entered Union lines, or alternately, knowing that the Union would soon take control of the plantation, remained there, defying attempts to \"refugee\" them. Moreover, most of the outrage in reaction of the terrible conditions in the camps came from Northern abolitionists - people the Southerners despised.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the clear better answer to this question as Answer A is not really an answer, but more of a comment. Answer B does not only win by default but provides an answer to the question. Answer B's response is an appropriate comparison and historically sound. Answer B does not contain  any grammatical mistakes and is easy to understand, which makes it the better answer."}
{"question":"I realize The King\u2019s Man was very much not a historically accurate movie. But there was a trench warfare scene that caught my eye.<br \/>Essentially Germans and English send scouting parties to no man\u2019s land. The two meet and, using sign language, agree that gunfire will mean the end of all of them. They all put down their firearms and proceed to quietly engage in vicious knife\/club fighting. Of course when someone finally breaks down and uses a pistol the trenches on either side erupt with gun fire killing almost all involved parties.<br \/>Any accuracy to this? Quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land.","answer_a":"Shortly, yes . Scouting missions into No Man's Land did happen and were undertaken with stealth and little firearms. Melee weapons such as clubs, hatchets, and sharpened entrancing tools were common place weapons and there is even evidence of spears being used in assaults.  German forces, as well as some Allied units, utilized armor for scouting missions as well. <br \/>In fact, there were entire German squads outfitted with melee weapons and armor that carried out nighttime missions and specialized trench attacks thought the Western Front. Granted, the movie takes liberties with this but the foundation is there. As for the firing at the least sound or a single gunshot--- there are accounts that mention these things happening in both first hand accounts as well as secondary sources. <br \/>A few sources to point you to:<br \/>There are several books that mention this, especially war diaries and secondary sources. Here are a few:<br \/>Keegan, John-- The First World War<br \/>Murray, Nicholas. The Rocky Road to the Great War: The Evolution of Trench Warfare to 1914.<br \/>Ellis, John.  Eye-Deep in Hell \u2013 Life in the Trenches 1914\u20131918<br \/>Johnson, Thomas M., and Fletcher Pratt. The Lost Battalion<br \/>Gudmundsson, Bruce I. Stormtroop Tactics: Innovation in the German Army, 1914-1918<br \/>Lengel, Edward. To Conquer Hell: The Meuse-Argonne, 1918.<br \/>Sheldon, J. The German Army on the Somme: 1914\u20131916. <br \/>Yockelson, Mitchell. Forty-Seven Days: How Pershing's Warriors Came of Age to Defeat at the German Army in World War I<br \/>I wholeheartedly recommend Gudmundsson and Ellis.<br \/>Edited: I had these readily at hand as I used them on as references earlier in my academic life and they currently are on my bookshelf.","answer_b":"There is some accuracy to the idea of quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land. This did happen on occasion, though it was not nearly as common as depicted in the movie. One famous example of this occurred during World War I at the Battle of the Somme. On the first day of the battle, British and German soldiers found themselves in close quarters in no man\u2019s land. They began fighting with whatever they had, including knives, bayonets, and even their bare hands. This continued until nightfall, when both sides retreated to their own trenches.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers provide good responses to the question, but Answer A answers all parts of the question and provides many sources to back their claim. The question does not contain major grammatical issues and the answers are grammatically fine. Both answers mention the idea that hand-to-hand fighting existed in the trenches, but only Answer A mentions the gunshot problem. The question asks about the quietness of the fighting and Answer A provides an explanation. Answer A also provides a wide range of sources to back their claim, which makes it the better answer."}
{"question":"What was the special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome?<br \/>I\u2019ve completely forgotten the name and can\u2019t find anything on google","answer_a":"The special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome was \"auxilia.\"","answer_b":"If you mean the non-Roman troops typically led by their own chieftains, those are the *foederati*.<br \/>*The Late Roman Army*, Pat Southern and Karen R Dixon, 1996.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The answer to this question was difficult to choose due to both answers being correct. The question itself does not have any false assumption and the answers are easy to follow. The auxilia were foreign people that fought for Rome and had different people that fought within their ranks. The auxilia were a more official part of the army and would not be seen as mercenaries. While the foederati were explicitly mercenaries bound to the Roman empire by treaty. It would make Answer B more correct since the answer asked for mercenaries. "}
{"question":"What does the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" mean and where did it come from? I have frequently seen it in archeology reports, or when Brits are speaking. I presume it to mean an improved road of some sort like gravel or paved road as opposed to a plain dirt road.","answer_a":"The term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is used to describe an improved road surface that is made up of compacted materials like gravel, stone, or pavement. This type of road surface is typically found in areas with high traffic volume or in locations where the natural soil conditions are not suitable for a paved road. In some cases, metal roads can also refer to roads that are coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous materials. <br \/>The term \"metal road\" is believed to have originated in the early 19th century, when roads were first being improved with compacted materials like gravel and stone. At that time, the use of metal (usually iron or steel) was also becoming more common in road construction, as it was used to reinforce the roadbed or to create drainage ditches alongside the road. Over time, the term \"metal road\" came to be used as a general term for any improved road surface, regardless of the materials used. <br \/>Today, the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is still used in many parts of the world, particularly in Britain, to describe an improved road surface. In some cases, the term is used interchangeably with \"paved road\" or \"tarred road.\" However, in other cases, it may be used to specifically describe a road that is made up of compacted materials like gravel or stone, or a road that is coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous material.","answer_b":"I\u2019m far from an expert, but decided to look this up a bit. At first, I expected to it be related to \u201cvia feratta\u201d, italian for iron path. These protected climbing routes built in mountains, notably in the Dolomites in WW1. I was incorrect. The correct, if more pedestrian explanation is that a metaled road is simply a road made of compacted small stones or gravel.<br \/>Source- https:\/\/dictionary.cambridge.org\/dictionary\/english\/metalled","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the far superior answer since it correctly answers the question and does not include irrelevant information. The question itself does not have any false assumptions and both answers are grammatically okay. Answer B's first half of the answer contains information not needed from the author's personal searches and they even state [I was incorrect]. They state they are not an expert and it is apparent since they give a very basic answer to the question. Answer A provides excellent detail to the answer and provides a quick but effective history of the term which makes it the better answer. "}
{"question":"Is there any idea what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles? When the church was replaced with a mosque, would the bones from the crypt just have been randomly tossed somewhere?","answer_a":"The Crusaders tossed those bones during the sacking in 1204.<br \/>Janin Raymond, La G\u00e9ographie Eccl\u00e9siastique de l'Empire Byzantin. 1. Part: Le Si\u00e8ge de Constantinople et le Patriarcat Oecum\u00e9nique. 3rd Vol. : Les \u00c9glises et les Monast\u00e8res","answer_b":"There is no certain answer to what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles. It is possible that the bones from the crypt were just randomly tossed somewhere when the church was replaced with a mosque.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A provides the better answer since it backs its claims with a source, while Answer B does not. The question itself is straightforward and the answers are grammatically sound. Question B says [there is no certain answer] but Answer A provides an answer backed by a source. Answer B tries to guess what happened, but that is not backed by any source. Question A answers the question and adds a credible source which makes it the better answer."}
{"question":"Has there been any battles in history where both sides were completely and mutually destroyed?","answer_a":"In normal conditions, this would not happen, since casualty rates in historical battles are rarely that extreme. In ancient warfare the defeated side might incur something like 10-20% casualties unless things went disastrously wrong. In modern warfare a unit that has lost more than 30% effectives is considered unfit for action.<br \/>Most of the time, the deciding factor is morale. Warriors simply aren't going to keep on fighting when they see their buddies falling left and right and they see no way of turning things around. They're going to try to get out of there, find a place of safety, and regroup if they can; or they're going to surrender. When the situation is hopeless, most armies will give up the fight, and this will happen long before they come anywhere near total annihilation. In fact, in premodern warfare the great majority of casualties were sustained when the side that broke first was fleeing from the battlefield with the victorious side in hot pursuit.<br \/>So, given these conditions, what would you need to achieve mutual destruction? You'd need two sides that were roughly evenly matched and utterly determined never to give up. The necessary attitude may sometimes be found among the last defenders of a town or fortress, but of course you would never get two such forces fighting each other; in most cases where one side is prepared to fight to the end, the other side is vastly superior and not similarly inclined. The result would be either the annihilation of the defenders or the flight of the attackers - never mutual destruction.<br \/>There is one case from Greek history that meets your requirements, though, by virtue of being artificially created and utterly exceptional: the so-called Battle of the Champions, fought around 550 BC between the Spartans and the Argives (Herodotos 1.82). When the two armies met, they agreed to settle their dispute over a border region by each choosing 300 champions, and letting those men fight it out. It seems these picked forces were a match for each other, because all 600 men died, except for two Argives and one Spartan. At that point the two Argives left the battlefield and declared themselves victorious. The Spartan stayed behind, stripped the dead of their armour, and declared himself victorious. <br \/>There is no other example of a prearranged battle like this in Greek history. The reason is obvious: it was a complete failure, since the two sides couldn't agree on who had won, and in the end they decided to launch their whole armies into an all-out battle anyway. But because of the artificial conditions and the dedication of the 600 champions, it's the closest a battle ever got to complete destruction on both sides.","answer_b":"There have been a few instances in history where both sides in a battle were completely and mutually destroyed. One example is the Battle of Cannae during the Second Punic War, in which the Carthaginian forces led by Hannibal annihilated a much larger Roman army. Another example is the Battle of Agincourt during the Hundred Years' War, in which the English forces led by Henry V defeated a much larger French army.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer since it provides a great amount of detail into why this scenario was nearly impossible to happen and an instance in which it did happen while Answer B is not correct. The question itself does not have any false assumptions and the answers are grammatically fine. Answer A gives background on why the scenario of mutual destruction was rare and provides an example closest to what the question is asking. In Answer B, the answers provided are not correct. The Battle of Cannae did lead to the complete slaughter on the side of the Romans, but Hannibal's side was still standing which does not meet the criteria of both sides being destroyed (https:\/\/sites.psu.edu\/successoftheromans\/roman-campaigns\/battle-of-cannae-216-bc\/). Answer B provides examples of battles in which one side was destroyed while the question asked for two, which makes Answer A better."}
{"question":"I'm reading through Ketcham's biography of Madison and I came on this quote just after Madison become Secretary of State describing a job seeker who<br \/>>began hopefully with a request for a territorial governorship, gradually descended to pleas to be appointed a port collector or postmaster, and ended finally... with a request for castoff clothing<br \/>This sounds very similar to something from Team of Rivals where Lincoln told a very similar story of someone settling for pants. Would one or both of these have been fictional stories told as jokes? Might Lincoln have taken the story from Madison? Or was this a common way that these job seekers asked for stuff?","answer_a":"It is possible that Madison and Lincoln were both telling jokes, as it is common for politicians to tell stories to make a point. It is also possible that Lincoln took the story from Madison, as he was known to borrow stories from others. It is also possible that this was a common way for job seekers to ask for things, as it would have been a way to get the attention of the person they were asking.","answer_b":"From the outset of the new US, every change in administration would result in a new chance for government posts to be awarded.  Of all the Founding Fathers. Madison was the consummate deal maker, and it's easy to imagine the story originating with him. <br \/> But Andrew Jackson was the most notorious practitioner of awarding posts to friends:  before him, chances were at least pretty good that a Federalist would be able to keep his job if a Democratic President came to power. But Jackson wanted a bureaucracy loyal to him, correctly saw that rewarding office seekers with positions was a way to gain political support in their regions, and was quick to terminate people in order to get it. By Lincoln's administration, it was very much expected that a there would be a major turnover in positions coming in with his election, so your story was certainly a joke- a wry one, as Lincoln had plenty of men hanging about the White House getting in his way, hoping for just such a chance.  But the joke had a point, both for Madison and Lincoln- there had to be a quid pro quo, as the office seeker was expected to bring some local influence, bring the support of a Congressman, an electoral district; something useful. A man without influence might well only be able to beg for a pair of pants.<br \/>Real civil service reform was begun by Garfield, and after he was shot by an office seeker, carried on to everyone's surprise by  Chester A. Arthur. The Pendelton Act of 1883 that began to create a professional civil service really does not get as much attention as it should, for the \"spoils system\" had been a major source of corruption.<br \/>Hoogenboom, Ari Arthur( 1982) *Outlawing the Spoils: A History of the Civil Service Reform Movement, 1865-1883*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B provides a detailed explanation from a credible and peer-reviewed source while Answer A is mostly a speculative guess. The question does not contain major grammatical issues and the answers are grammatically okay. Answer B is the correct answer but it does get dragged down by the intro since it takes until halfway to make their point. In history, it is important to assert knowledge by backing it up with sources and information. Answer A's language of [it is possible] does nothing to make a claim and is used in order to not have a credible source. So many concepts could be possible in history but credible sources are what make them history. Answer B gives a detailed and credible response to the question. "}
{"question":"When the joint-stock company was first invented, was there a lot of pushback on the concept? What were some of the concerns?  Also any recommended books on the invention of the concept would be much appreciated!","answer_a":"An early form of joint stock ventures appeared in Assyria by the beginning of the 2nd millennium BCE. There does not seem to have been any noticeable pushback against the concept, although trade caravans were often taxed heavily. Of course, the relevant texts were written to and from people engaged in trade, so there's no way of knowing what other Assyrians thought of long distance trade. <br \/>>Most of these traders had become more independent by having become managers of a \"joint-stock fund\" (called *naruqqum*, \"money bag\"), usually set up in Assur. This phenomenon appeared for the first time around 1900 BC and seems to have been an Old Assyrian invention that went beyond individual partnerships and cooperation in a joint caravan. The arrangement, rather similar to that of the early medieval *compagnia*, meant enlisting a number (usually about a dozen) of investors (*ummi\u0101num*, \"financiers\"), who supplied capital rated in gold, usually in all ca. 30 kilos, ideally consisting of shares of 1 or 2 kilos of gold each. It was entrusted to a trader (the tractator), usually for ca. ten years, for the generally formulated purpose of \"carrying out trade.\" The contract contained stipulations on a final settlement of accounts, on paying dividends, on the division of the expected profit, and on fines for premature withdrawal of capital (meant to secure the duration of the business). Investors or shareholders mostly lived in Assur, but successful traders in Anatolia too invested in funds managed by others, perhaps also as a way of sharing commercial risks. In such cases a contract would to be drawn up in Anatolia that obliged the tractator \"to book in Assur x gold in his joint stock fund in the investor's name.\" Among the investors we find members of the tractator's family, but also business relations and others, probably a kind of \"merchant-bankers,\" and other rich citizens, who aimed at fairly safe, long-term investments.<br \/>[\"Ancient Assur: The City, its Traders, and its Commercial Network\"](https:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/25651212) by Klaas Veenhof<br \/>For more on Old Assyrian trade and these early joint stock funds, see [*Ancient Kanesh: A Merchant Colony in Bronze Age Anatolia*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=qXGgCgAAQBAJ) by Mogens Larsen.","answer_b":"There was definitely some pushback when the joint-stock company was first invented. Some people were concerned that it would lead to corruption and cronyism, while others were worried that it would concentrate too much power in the hands of a few people. Recommended books on the topic include The First Tycoon: The Epic Life of Cornelius Vanderbilt by T.J. Stiles and The Great Transformation: The Political and Economic Origins of Our Time by Karl Polanyi.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A provides a better answer as it provides an answer that better addresses the question and answers all parts of the question, while Answer B does not go into detail in order to back their claim. The questions itself does not contain grammatical issues and the answers are both free of grammatical errors. The answers contain different approaches to this question with Answer A applying a modern concept to an ancient business practice and Answer B providing a more modern example, both can be correct but Answer A provides a much more thorough explanation. Answer B mentions that joint-stock companies had pushback but fails to discuss the company at all. Answer A describes the company, pushback, and provides relevant and credible sources which makes it the better answer."}
{"question":"What were the differences (if any) in the standard protective finishes on firearms from WWI to WWII?<br \/>I'm struggling to find conclusive details on the protective finishes used on historical firearms.<br \/>While browning has been around for centuries, blueing seems to be almost universally preferred for firearms. However, I can't find any reliable sources on exactly how these firearms were protected. Some say they were blued, others that they just slapped on a load of radiator paint. Still others talk about anodising but that seems unlikely to me based on examples I've seen. I've also heard that they simply weren't protected at all, notably with the Sten gun.","answer_a":"As you likely have noticed, there are LOTS of ways to blue a firearm. What makes it confusing is that both browning and blueing are making an iron oxide layer, and a blued finish will, on exposure to the elements ( like, someone goes hunting) bit by bit revert to regular brown rust, so quite a lot of guns are now brown that were once blue ( there's a gunsmith invocation over blueing: \"from rust you came, to rust you shall return\"). <br \/>In the later 1800's it was discovered that a phosphate coating could be created that was more stable than blueing or browning. The patent history is a bit complex, but the process was made practical after 1900, and in 1918 the Parker Rust-Proof Company started up in Detroit. Because of them , the finish has since generally been called parkerizing, and it was adopted by Springfield Armory and contractors as the standard finish on US small arms in WWII, like the Garand, the 1911A1 automatic pistol, the 1903A3 rifle.  I'm afraid I don't know if any other countries used it, however: I think a blued finish was the most common elsewhere. <br \/>Even though the patents have long expired, the Parker Company still exists, and has a [website](https:\/\/www.parkerhq.com\/about-us)<br \/>Angier, R. H. (2021). Firearm Blueing & Browning (First Edition). Stackpole Co.   ( I should note, here, that Angier's book, the classic reference,  is from 1936. It is  still in print)","answer_b":"There is some debate over the protective finishes used on firearms during WWI and WWII. Some say that the firearms were blued, while others claim that they were simply painted with radiator paint. Still others believe that the firearms were anodized, though this seems unlikely based on examples that have been found. It is also possible that the firearms were not protected at all, as was the case with the Sten gun.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer because it provides an excellent amount of detail regarding these firearms and adds a source to help substantiate their claims, while Answer B fails to add anything of value to the conversation. The question itself is valid and the answers do not have any glaring mistakes in terms of grammar. Answer B reiterates the question for half of their answer which is an irrelevant thing to do. Answer A provides insight into the blueing of weapons and based on the links provided, know what the topic they are writing about. Answer A provides a brief history and directly answers the question."}
{"question":"I\u2019m reading Richard Miles\u2019 *Carthage Must be Destroyed*, and it includes this map [https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w](https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w) of Phoenician trading routes in the section titled \u201cThe Early City,\u201d so I\u2019m assuming this is meant to depict them during the time covered by the section in question, around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria, but Alexandria wasn\u2019t there yet. Where is this supposed to be? Was it just a random little Phoenician trading stop, and if so how would Miles or whoever made this map have decided that that specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route? You\u2019d think the answer would be in the text of the book, but if it is I can\u2019t find it \ud83d\ude05","answer_a":"The map in question is meant to depict the Phoenician trading routes around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria. However, Alexandria was not founded until around 331 BC, centuries after the time period depicted in the map.<br \/>So, what is this supposed to be? It is most likely a Phoenician trading stop that was in existence before Alexandria was founded. Miles or whoever made this map may have decided that this specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route based on its location and the fact that it was a known trading stop for the Phoenicians.","answer_b":"It's almost certainly referring to [Herakleion](https:\/\/www.theguardian.com\/cities\/2016\/aug\/15\/lost-cities-6-thonis-heracleion-egypt-sunken-sea), which was the largest port in Egypt at the time and the main source of goods bound for the Greek settlement of [Naukratis](https:\/\/www.ucl.ac.uk\/museums-static\/digitalegypt\/naukratis\/index.html) in the western Delta. For more on relations between Egypt and the other Mediterranean powers, see [*Beyond the Nile: Egypt and the Classical World*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=UTlDDwAAQBAJ) edited by Sara Cole.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the overall better answer since it provides a credible answer, Answer A simply attempts to answer the question without any backing. The question itself is fine with no false assumptions. Answer A and B are easy to follow and do not contain grammar mistakes. Answer A repeats the question in the first paragraph of their answer and does add anything of significance in the second. Answer B provides a definite answer and adds two sources to back their claim. This makes Answer B the better choice."}
{"question":"There are lots of interesting religious relics listed on Wikipedia like [Mary Magdalene's skull] (https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Relics_of_Mary_Magdalene?wprov=sfla1).<br \/>How would a church have come by something like this and how likely is this to be real (by which I mean the skull belonging to the real historical figure)? <br \/>On that subject, are there any other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance that you could post about?","answer_a":"The thing is that whether or not a relic is 'real' is sometimes not the point. More can always be said on the matter if anyone would like to explore this topic, so if you can contribute your knowledge, please don't let this linkdrop stop you! For the meantime, OP, I commend to your attention u\/WelfOnTheShelf's [post on relics and their authenticity](https:\/\/old.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/hi3z4f\/i_am_the_abbot_of_a_mediumsized_medieval\/).","answer_b":"The church could have come by the skull in a number of ways. It could have been donated by a follower of Mary Magdalene, or it could have been acquired through trade or purchase. It is also possible that the skull was taken from Magdalene's tomb after her death.<br \/>There is no way to know for sure if the skull is real. However, if it did belong to the historical figure of Mary Magdalene, it would be a very significant relic.<br \/>There are a number of other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance. For example, the Shroud of Turin is a piece of cloth that is believed by some to be the burial shroud of Jesus Christ. The relic is controversial, as some believe it to be a fake, but it remains a significant religious relic nonetheless.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A does not answer the whole question while Answer B addresses all parts of the questions and answers them to the best of their abilities. The question has no inherent flaws and both answers are easy to follow. Although, Answer A begins to link all these other subreddits which does not help the question to be answered. \nAnswer B is well structured and was not a difficult option to choose from. The answers are accurate and they provide examples of other artifacts while adding context to them. "}
{"question":"Were there any battles during World War 2 involving significant amounts of tanks of French, British, or Japanese origin?<br \/>We hear plenty about conflicts between American or Russian and German armored divisions during the war, but I'm not too familiar with any battles involving Japanese, French or British tanks. I'm aware that the French army folded relatively quickly and a significant amount of equipment fell into German hands, and that the island hopping campaign and the terrain involved wasn't overly conducive to armored warfare, but I feel that makes these conflicts, if any exist, more interesting","answer_a":"Depending on your definition of \"significant amounts\", the Japanese had 73 tanks in the Battle of Khalkhin Gol against the Soviet Union in 1939.<br \/>See *Japanese Tanks 1939-45* by Stephen J. Zaloga for details.","answer_b":"For Japan there is some stuff in Alvin Coox *Nomonhan: Japan Against Russia, 1939.*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A answers part of the question in more detail while also scrutinizing the original question which makes it a better answer than B. The question itself is vague since what does a significant amount mean? Both answers are without grammatical mistakes and are easy to follow. Answer A provides an exact amount of tanks that the Japanese used in a specific battle which gives more details than Question B. Question B lacks any real effort to provide an answer and simply mentions a book to make the reader do any of the work. "}
{"question":"I remember learning about an ex prisoner who was brought to America to help train the soldiers. But the details escape me. Can anyone provide details to who he was?","answer_a":"Those clues are kind of vague, but one possible candidate *might* be Casimir Pulaski. He was an effective cavalry officer who was embroiled in the chaos of Poland in the later 18th c. and fought on a losing side, but while he was tried and condemned and his possessions confiscated, he'd fled to France  by then. So, \"ex prisoner\" is not *quite* correct. But he did indeed help train American cavalry- and irritated quite a few who served with him with his imperious manner. If you heard about him in the US, it might be because there are a lot of towns named after him, and he became quite a popular hero to later Polish-Americans.<br \/>Pienkos, A. (1976). A Bicentennial Look at Casimir Pulaski: Polish, American and Ethnic Folk Hero. Polish American Studies, 33(1), 5\u201317. http:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/20147942","answer_b":"The ex-prisoner mentioned is most likely Jean-Baptiste Charbonneau, also known as Pomp. He was the son of Sacagawea and Toussaint Charbonneau, and accompanied the Lewis and Clark expedition as a young child.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste was born in 1805 and captured by the Hidatsa tribe at a young age. He spent several years living with the Hidatsa before being traded to the Lewis and Clark expedition in exchange for horses. Lewis and Clark took him under their wing, and he spent the next several years traveling with them across the country.<br \/>In 1811, the expedition returned to St. Louis and Jean-Baptiste was placed in the care of William Clark. Clark helped to educate him and arranged for him to be trained as a blacksmith.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste spent the next few years working as a blacksmith in St. Louis. In 1823, he was hired by the US government to help train soldiers at Fort Atkinson in Wisconsin. He continued to work as a blacksmith and soldier until his death in 1866.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers could potentially fit the question but Answer A is slightly better than B. The real problem here lies with the question itself since it is vague and gives zero indication of which soldier they may be referring to. There are probably many other soldiers brought to America that could fit this description. Both answers are easy to follow and lack grammatical mistakes. \n\nAlthough both Answers could potentially fit, Answer A is better since the person described in the second answer does not really fit the idea of an ex-prisoner. Jean-Baptiste Charbonneau was more of a captured person than someone sentenced to a punishment. The question seems more in relation to an actual prisoner, not a kidnap victim. "}
{"question":"Is there a historical reason why people shout \"Geronimo\" when jumping off things?","answer_a":"Since Geronimo fought in Arizona and Sonora, where did the story come from?","answer_b":"From https:\/\/www.etymonline.com\/word\/geronimo  <br \/>\"Geronimo\" cry made in jumping, 1944 among U.S. airborne soldiers, apparently from the story of the Apache leader Geronimo making a daring leap to escape U.S. cavalry pursuers at Medicine   Bluffs, Oklahoma (and supposedly shouting his name in defiance as he did). Adopted as battle cry by paratroopers in World War II, who perhaps had seen it in the 1939 Paramount Studios movie \"Geronimo.\" The name is the Italian and Spanish form of Jerome, from Greek Hieronomos, literally \"sacred name.\" One contemporary source also lists Osceola as a jumping cry.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer since it actually answers the question and the other is not an actual answer. Answer B provides a source to back its claim about the phrase of Geronimo and is correct. Answer A offers no sources, a clear answer, and is more a question than an answer. Answer B is the better answer with no doubt due to its accuracy, readability, and correct information."}
{"question":"Could Frederick Douglass swim?","answer_a":"I think that the best thing to ask about, perhaps, would be *childhood* within the bounds of enslavement. Young enslaved children would often be the playmates of white children, so learning to swim together would not be unusual - and Douglass, elsewhere in the extended quotation, makes clear swimming was something from his *childhood*, describing his swim that *\"Here all my boyish pranks in the front basin of Baltimore were renewed\"*. It was a very interesting dichotomy that existed in those situations, an intermixing both of friendship *and* mastery, so definitely a lot of fodder to write about.","answer_b":"That\u2019s actually very interesting, I was under the impression efforts were made to make sure slaves couldn\u2019t swim as a means of cutting off potential escape routes via rivers or ponds etc. it makes sense it wasn\u2019t black and white (ha, like it ever was)","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The better answer is hard to choose since both answers offer subpar explanations to the question presented. The question does not contain any false assumptions. Both answers consider all parts of the question. The Answers do not have grammatical mistakes and are easy to follow. Looking up the actual quote referenced in Question A gives a clearer answer as he says [until he found \u201ca suitable place to renew my acquaintance with the art of swimming\"] which showed directly that Douglass knew how to swim. So Answer A could be improved by including the full quote.\n\nAnswer B is simple and tries to use Douglass' classification as a slave to attempt an answer. Slaves were discouraged from swimming and had escaped through swimming in the past. Answer A is better since the author knew that Douglass could swim even if the quote he used does not directly state that."}
{"question":"In an aside in *Eichmann* Arendt casually asserts Heydrich was a mischling. This is...wrong, right?  Is this at all an open question?  Why would she have thought this?","answer_a":"Arendt's assertion that Heydrich was a mischling (of mixed Jewish and non-Jewish descent) is wrong. There is no evidence that Heydrich had any Jewish ancestry, and he was raised as a Catholic. It is unclear why Arendt would have thought Heydrich was a mischling, but it is possible she was confused by his Jewish-sounding surname.","answer_b":"It was a rumor, but never substantiated. It did crop up within Nazi circles by others looking to damage his own standing in the party, but a 1932 investigation determined it was baseless, and as far as I am aware, non-Nazi research in the matter has likewise been fruitless. The basis of it was the last name of his father's step-father, which was Suss. Although \"Jewish-sounding\" Gustav Suss was a) not Jewish b) Bruno Heydrich's step-father not his real father and c) only nine years older than Bruno when he married Bruno's mother (Bruno was in his early 20s at that point).<br \/>So in short it was a rumor premised on impossibilities.<br \/>See: Robert Gerwarth. Hitler's Hangman: The Life of Heydrich.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was difficult to choose a better answer as they are both correct but Answer A directly answers part of the question and keeps the answer concise. The question itself does not contain any false assumptions. Answer A addresses why Hannah Arendt in specific might have thought Heydrich was a mischling while Answer B speaks in general terms and does not directly mention Arendt. Both answers are lacking grammatical errors and are easy to follow. Answer B provides relevant information about Heydrich while Answer A provides similar information. \n\nAnswer A is better since it tries to answer the question of what did Hanna Arendt think of Heydrich. Answer B speaks in general terms about what other people during Nazi Germany thought of Heydrich. Both answers are adequate but the first is slightly better. "}
{"question":"In the USA, the flag of the Confederacy is often flown proudly. It\u2019s the flag of the states that declared war on the rest of their country, a war they lost. Are there any other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted?","answer_a":"There are no other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted.","answer_b":"The flag of the II Spanish Republic (red, yellow, and purple horizontal stripes) is quite popular among the Spanish left. The Republic lost the Civil War of 1936-39 that resulted in General Francisco Franco becoming dictator until his death in 1975.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer since Answer A is just not correct at all. The question does contain the false assumption that the losers in a civil war always had a different flag. The question seems to make the assumption that if there is a civil war then the flags used by the enemies will be different. There are several cases of civil wars throughout history, in which both sides use the same flag. Nations involved in a civil war typically want to be seen as the rightful government and a rightful continuation of a nation. The question would be better posed as, to which people have lost a civil war and continued to happily display their flag. Both answers address the question but Answer B gives the right example. Both answers are straightforward replies with no major grammar mistakes and are easy to follow. The answers are short and do not contain irrelevant information. \nAnswer A is not correct since people or governments that have lost a civil war in other nations also continue to proudly display their flags or use them to rally people. Answer B gives an example of such a flag which can be factually backed by looking up information about the flag mentioned. In this article is the main picture and can be seen as a clear rallying point. https:\/\/www.eurotopics.net\/en\/259583\/spain-90th-anniversary-of-the-second-republic"}
{"question":"I have read on this subreddit before that it was not unheard of for medieval nuns writing about Jesus and God in very erotic, or seemingly erotic, terms. I was wondering if there is any compiled lists of this medieval thirst poetry or what are some more famous examples of it?","answer_a":"Yes, this was absolutely a thing \u2013 and a reasonably widespread thing at that. Quite a lot of medieval religious women practiced aversion of mystical theology which incorporated a significant erotic element. This tended to revolve around casting Jesus as a bridegroom figure, with whomthe mystic envisioned themselves achieving spiritual, mystical union with. It\u2019s worth noting that it was by no means only women practicing this kind of spiritual experience. Indeed, one of the most prominent examples of this practice is St Bernard of Clairvaux\u2019s (1090-1153) sermons on the Song of Songs, in which he makes use of strongly sexualised imagery to describe union with Christ (and then promptly chastises his audience for their dirty minds \u2013 good consistentapproach there Bernard, A+).<br \/>However, it\u2019s certainly the women who are the most famous for this practice, and it does seem to have been a largely female (andcertainly feminised) form of mysticism. To the best of my knowledge, there\u2019s not a compiled list, simply because there\u2019s a huge amount of the stuff. Poetry is prominent, but there\u2019s also many prose accounts of mystical visions and experiences. There is an (important) caveat that the actual writer of these experiences can differ \u2013 in some cases it is the mystic herself, but in many other it\u2019s a male (usually mendicant) confessor or spiritual director. This can be a very significant filter on the voice that we can access, and can play a part in homogenising or \u201cflattening\u201d the texts.<br \/>In terms of the content, \u201cthirst poetry\u201d is an interesting modern analogy, but it\u2019s important to remember that the erotic content of works like this is (at least theoretically) very much the means to the end, which is complete and total union with the divine. Much mystical theology works in an apophatic way \u2013 this means that God is conceptualised as the ultimate negative, completely unknown and unknowable. Due to this fundamentally unreachable nature, a variety of intellectual strategies are employed to try and bridge this epistemological gap, of which the use of the erotic mode of expression is just one. It\u2019s also worth noting that one could quite equally look at some of this \u201cerotic\u201d language and categorise it as being about violent behaviour instead. See for example Beatrice of Nazareth\u2019s description of love:<br \/>*\u201cMeantime, when love acts in the heart so vehemently and riotously, it becomes so excessive and exuberant in the soul that the soul thinks its heart has been wounded in many and grave ways.... So it seems that its veins are opened and its blood is boiling out, its marrow is withered and its legs are weak, its chest burns and its throat is dry.... And the soul thus feels love acting riotously within it, sparing nothing, uncontrollably seizing and consuming everything within the soul like a devouring fire\u2026\u201d*<br \/>Or Mechthild of Magdeburg\u2019s description of the union with the Godhead:<br \/>*\u201cShe is captured in the first experience*  <br \/>*When God kisses her in sweet union.*  <br \/>*She is assailed with many a holy thought*  <br \/>*That she not waver when she mortifies her flesh.*  <br \/>*She is bound by the power of the Holy Spirit,*  <br \/>*And her bliss is indeed manifold.*  <br \/>*She is slapped with the great powerlessness*  <br \/>*Of not being able to enjoy without interruption eternal light\u201d*<br \/>I\u2019m not saying these works are *about* violence specifically, just that they\u2019re not either uncomplicatedly erotic, or using eroticism as the primary meaning of the text.<br \/>Famous examples \u2013 probably the most widely known these days are Margery Kempe (experiencing something of a renaissance recently) and St Catherine of Siena. Examples do, however, multiply - Dorothea of Montau, Marguerite Porete, Mechthild of Magdeburg, Hadewijch of Antwerp \u2013 the list goes on. I\u2019d suggest that Kempe and St Catherine are probably the easiest to find editions of the complete text, though I\u2019d not swear to that.<br \/>If you want some good reading on the subject, a classic text is C. Walker-Bynum, *Fragmentation and Redemption* (New York: Zone Books, 1992). A broader (and possibly more accessible) work is E. A. Petroff (ed), *Medieval Women\u2019s Visionary Literature*, (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1986). There is a wealth of more recent writing on the topic, but those are good starting points.<br \/>Edit: formatting. Jesus, reddit.","answer_b":"Bynum also covers this in [Holy Feast and Holy Fast: The Religious Significance of Food to Medieval Women (The New Historicism: Studies in Cultural Poetics Book 1)](https:\/\/smile.amazon.com\/dp\/B003AU4J0O\/ref=cm_sw_r_apan_glt_X3X5ZZVNW0XMJP1QQ734) (University of California: 1988). It was my first introduction to it, and contextualises the sort of bodily piety that gave rise to the erotics of God.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer due to them providing an accurate and well-explained answer. Answer B does not answer the question presented and the source provided does not help answer the question. The question itself does not contain false assumptions as it does not make assumptions in the first place. Answer A considers all aspects of the question, by addressing each part of it and providing adequate answers. Answer B attempts to answer the question but does not answer the question directly. There are no fatal grammar mistakes but Answer A could be structured better and reduced to avoid redundancy and for an easier read. In Answer A, the author goes on to quote poems which is not necessary as it only drags the answer down and does not let the person asking the question explore the poems for themselves. \n\nAnswer B does not have incorrect information, but rather it does not answer the questions given. The book linked by Answer B does not seemingly answer the question of whether there are any compiled lists or explicit examples of eroticism. Answer A provides direct examples and further reading on the subject asked about. "}
{"question":"A medieval household and village produced a lot of ash, what would they do with all of it?<br \/>Ash can be good for gardens but too much ash, there's a lot of lye and salts put into the soil and it will burn up the root systems.","answer_a":"That's what ash-holes (or ash-pits)  are good for:[https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit](https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit)<br \/>Archeologists love ashholes as a lot of other stuff got thrown in there as well.   <br \/>Here is an interesting  article, aptly named \"Have you tried the ash pit\" that discusses an ash-pit excavation in Ireland in detail: [https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have\\_you\\_tried\\_the\\_ash\\_pit](https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have_you_tried_the_ash_pit)","answer_b":"A medieval household might use ash in the garden, but too much ash can be harmful. Ash can contain high levels of lye and salts, which can burn plant roots.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer as it provides relevant academic information and does not repeat the question. The question itself does not have any false assumptions, as the information they point out is relevant. There are no major grammar mistakes in either answer. The answers are not convoluted and are straightforward. Answer B contains irrelevant information as it repeats part of the question with [Ash can contain high levels of lye and salts, which can burn plant roots]. The question itself already points that out and it is repetitive for the answer to mention it. Answer B has a lack of information, it seems that they are guessing rather than having sources to back their claim. Answer A's links provide relevant information to their answer and upon reading the article linked, their answer is sufficiently backed up. Answer A is correct and has the historical information to support its claim.  "}
{"question":"How do bug sprays like Raid kill bugs? I googled it and could not decipher the words being thrown at me. To be fair though, I am pretty stoned rn","answer_a":"Most bug sprays work by using chemicals that are toxic to insects. When the bug comes into contact with the spray, the chemicals will kill the bug.","answer_b":"It's a poison, and since bugs are tiny it takes way less poison to kill them than it would a human. A lot of times the chemicals are just destructive to tissue. Imagine you get sprayed in the face by a water hose. Some of that water's going to go in your mouth and up your nose. Now imagine instead of water, it's a toxin that destroys cell tissue. The hose stops, you gasp for breath, and your lungs start scarring as the vapor dissolves them. Or it could be a neurotoxin that disrupts your nerves so effectively the signals for your heart to beat stop working.  One squirt from a can of bug spray covers that bug with our equivalent of a swimming pool of toxins. They inevitably end up breathing in and ingesting some, and it causes catastrophic damage to their internal organs or paralyzes them.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it is more descriptive, well formulated and easy to follow. It contains all necessary explanation with example which make it easy to understand by the reader. It has covered all the aspects of the question being asked. It states ''One squirt from a can of bug spray covers that bug with our equivalent of a swimming pool of toxins. They inevitably end up breathing in and ingesting some, and it causes catastrophic damage to their internal organs or paralyzes them'' which clears the concept of reader.\nWhile answer A is very short and precise having no explanation relevant to the concept of the question and have no scientific facts to prove the statement correct.\nSo, answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"Why do most medicines have a side-effect? I've been drinking some meds and it was really annoying to experience the side effects. Can't we make all medicine have no side-effects? Follow up question; Does it not get affected or dissolve in our stomach?","answer_a":"The chemical reactions in your body are set and unchanging. It is impossible to introduce new chemical pathways. All pharmacology is either enhancing or suppressing one of these pathways. Drug side effects occur when the drug is chemically similar enough to interact with something in a different pathway other the one it is intended to work on. all the chemical pathways are interconnected as well so slowing one down or speeding one up is likely to have a \u201cdomino\u201d effect which causes other effects to occur. Furthermore the same chemicals can serve multiple roles depending on the tissue they are present in, taking an analogue of that chemical systemically may cause multiple different effects in different tissues.  [map of the biochemical pathways in your body](https:\/\/www.cc.gatech.edu\/~turk\/bio_sim\/articles\/metabolic_pathways.png)","answer_b":"Usually side effects happen because the medications do more in the body than just treat the initial problem. This is because often the medications are made to be processed by the body (ingested a certain way, digested\/flow into the bloodstream etc) without causing any problems within the body which cause serious issues but enough for the body to utilise the medication to treat the needs it is created for. This also means that often a medication may treat multiple areas which are not needed by the body for treatment thus to not cause harm must be at a certain dosage, or vice versa. They \u201cunder treat\u201d an issue due to the medication being needed for multiple uses\/not being able to directly fix the problem at hand alone. This is where side effects come in, normally they are not too bad depending upon the issue but if you are having issues then please speak with your personal health professional. It is also possible to have positive side effects, and In theory this has caused medications to be used for medical treatments wider than their initial intended use, often modified to treat a different issue. But basically the medication cannot directly pin point where the target area may be needed to work so in effect, treats the whole body with such intake - thus causing unrelated bodily side effects elsewhere as it is absorbed as a whole and processed through the entire system, interacting with any and all other molecules it comes into contact with.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to choose which is better option because both the answers are equally good. Both the answers properly explains the phenomenon behind the side effects of some medicines. \nAnswer A is more factually correct because it describes scientific facts and have working mechanism of medicines in our body.\nWhile answer B explains the process in casual terms without any scientific mechanism behind the effects of medicines. It states ''But basically the medication cannot directly pin point where the target area may be needed to work so in effect, treats the whole body with such intake'' which is not necessarily correct because most of the medicines are being synthesized are target oriented. So, answer A seems better choice."}
{"question":"Does MSG actually naturally occur in foods and is it the same as products like hydrolyzed wheat and yeast extract? I see a lot of articles that defend MSG by saying that it occurs naturally in umami foods and that things like hydrolyzed proteins and yeast extract are just MSG.<br \/>Is it possible that while MSG is safe, the overzealous arguments aren\u2019t completely true?<br \/>I thought what occurs naturally and what hydrolyzed protein and yeast extract is actually is glutamic acid, while MSG is monosodium glutamate which is a sodium salt of the acid so they technically aren\u2019t the same.","answer_a":"MSG is monosodium glutamate, your body is full of glutamate as it is an amino acid essential for your life, and whenever there is sodium in solution it can and does form MSG. That is why you can't label food as \"no MSG\" or \"MSG free\", it's always \"no MSG added\" because if it has protein at all then it's going to have MSG. MSG, like sodium, is really one of those things that is associated with living things, and it is healthy to have it in your diet. Like sodium, there is such thing as too much. With all that said, there are studies that have shown negative effects of extreme amounts of glutamate (but nobody eats that much), and lots have shown negative effects of MSG, but the MSG negative effects can mostly be explained as too much sodium. As it relates to Chinese food, they traditionally use a lot of soy sauce, which is really soy protein and salt in liquid form, it forms a LOT of MSG, to the point that soy sauce can be considered liquid MSG. Using a lot of soy sauce will add a lot of sodium to your diet, and yes, Chinese food tends to be high in sodium. Those negative effects of Chinese food are really too much sodium, I have gotten headaches from Chinese food, it absolutely was too much sodium. For whatever reason, people seem to think a headache after eating Chinese food, and other negative effects are somehow from the MSG, it's not, it's from the sodium, which technically is \"from MSG\", but you would have had the same effect if your replaced the MSG with table salt.","answer_b":"It is possible, that MSG is perfectly safe, in fact we've known about it for years. The original \"idea\" that MSG was bad for you came from a prank letter written, written under a racist pseudonym to a medical journal about how \"[Chinese food makes your tire](https:\/\/news.colgate.edu\/magazine\/2019\/02\/06\/the-strange-case-of-dr-ho-man-kwok\/)d\", it was all kind of a good-natured-yet-still-kinda-racist prank in the 1970s. But immediately after tons of letters flooded in responding and then, poof , 50 years later we all \"know\" that MSG is bad for you.  It's not, it's delicious and normal. It's all just a prank that got out of control.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer A is better choice because it contains relevant information and covers all aspects of the question. While answer B contains irrelevant information like ''The original \"idea\" that MSG was bad for you came from a prank letter written, written under a racist pseudonym to a medical journal about how \"[Chinese food makes your tire](https:\/\/news.colgate.edu\/magazine\/2019\/02\/06\/the-strange-case-of-dr-ho-man-kwok\/)d\", it was all kind of a good-natured-yet-still-kinda-racist prank in the 1970s. But immediately after tons of letters flooded in responding and then, poof , 50 years later we all \"know\" that MSG is bad for you. It's not, it's delicious and normal. It's all just a prank that got out of control.'' which does not cover all aspects of question.\nAnswer A accurately explains all the aspects of question and make it easy to follow. So, it is better choice."}
{"question":"what will happen if you ate 1 gram of uranium ( which is 20 billion calories ) assuming you're immune to radiation. so if you ate 1g of uranium ( which is 20 billion calories ) what will happen if you don't die or get sick due to radiation<br \/> will the fat cells get very massive to the point of you dying ( or to the point you get the American passport )  ? or will the body just get rid of it?","answer_a":"You would gain weight. Specifically, you would gain one gram, due to the mass of the uranium you ingested. ...I know, it's a little anticlimactic, but it's what would happen. A gram of uranium contains 20 billion *heat* calories, but no *food* calories since our bodies can't derive any energy from it.","answer_b":"If you ate 1 gram of uranium, you would consume 20 billion calories. This would be an incredibly large amount of energy for your body to process, and you would most likely die from the sheer amount of energy being released. If you were immune to radiation, you would still be at risk of death from the amount of energy being released, as your body would not be able to handle it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer B is better choice as it is factually more correct and easy to follow. While answer A contains false assumptions which are not related to scientific facts. It states ''You would gain weight. Specifically, you would gain one gram, due to the mass of the uranium you ingested. ...I know, it's a little anticlimactic, but it's what would happen. A gram of uranium contains 20 billion *heat* calories, but no *food* calories since our bodies can't derive any energy from it.''' which is incorrect because an human cannot handle such amount of energy.\nAnswer B states ''If you were immune to radiation, you would still be at risk of death from the amount of energy being released, as your body would not be able to handle it.'' which is correct.\nAnswer B is well formulated and easy to follow. So, it is better choice."}
{"question":"Why are engine exhuast valves so much smaller than intake valves? I get that the fuel burns but obviously there is no loss of mass or number of atoms. There is energy released and an increase in pressure, but if anything this would mean the exhuast valves should be bigger to handle the post combustion increase in pressure.","answer_a":"When you suck in air through a small opening, there's an upper limit to the pressure difference. You've got one atmosphere of pressure (1 bar) on one side and you can't have more than a perfect vacuum on the other side. 'Sucking harder' won't help and you're limited to 1 bar. When you blow air through a small opening, there's no real upper limit to the pressure difference. In that case 'blowing harder' does help and you can have a pressure difference of 2 or 3 bar. That's why pushing air through the exhaust valves is less of a challenge than sucking air through the intakes valves, and you can trade a bit of exhaust valve area for more intake valve area to improve overall airflow.","answer_b":"There is quite clearly an increase in the number of atoms with combustion.  Long chain hydrocarbons are converted mainly to water and carbon dioxide.  But this has nothing to do with the size of the valves. When the exhaust valves open at the end of the combustion stroke, the pressure in the cylinder is high because of the high temperature (causes gases to want to expand), and thus the flow rate out of the exhaust valves will be high.  Said another way, there is a big pressure differential or difference between the pressure in the cylinder and the pressure in the exhaust manifold during the exhaust stroke.  So the exhaust goes out fast.  Like air from a balloon that you are squeezing really hard.  You don't need a big valve for that to get a good flow rate and fully evacuate the cylinder of the exhaust gases.  For the intake stroke, the pressure difference between the cylinder and the intake manifold is small, so the flow rate will be lower.  You need a bigger valve to get all the air into the cylinder by the end of the intake stroke.  This is especially true at high rpm.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Before evaluating the answer, I would like to correct a mistake in question which is spelling of ''exhaust''.\nFor this question, both the options are equally good because they have explain the process comprehensively using appropriate example and pressure difference.\nAnswer A states ''When you blow air through a small opening, there's no real upper limit to the pressure difference. In that case 'blowing harder' does help and you can have a pressure difference of 2 or 3 bar. That's why pushing air through the exhaust valves is less of a challenge than sucking air through the intakes valves, and you can trade a bit of exhaust valve area for more intake valve area to improve overall airflow.'' which make sense but still it is difficult to understand for a layman.\nAnd answer B is easy to follow and contains easy example like that of balloon. So, answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"where does hospital morphine come from? is it poppies? is it synthetic? is it not actually morphine? do all countries have secret poppy fields just in case of war?","answer_a":"Growing poppies is usually restricted to commercial, regulated farms, but it\u2019s not outright illegal. Poppy seeds are used in a lot of cuisine, probably most commonly in the West as part of poppy seed cakes and as a topping for bagels (eg. the ubiquitous \u201ceverything\u201d bagel usually has poppy seeds). It\u2019s the processing of poppies to morphine\/codeine\/other opioids that is highly regulated and controlled.","answer_b":"It is possible to make morphine through pure synthesis. However this is not a very cheap process and is therefore not used in commercial production. There is however a number of licensed poppy fields around the world. Some countries even allow limited growing of poppies without license as long as you do not extract opium from it. The same poppies used for morphine production is also used for vegitable oil and as orniments. So poppies are grown for other purpuses beyond medical ones. Most famously during WWI the battle of paachendale took place largely in a poppy field which have caused the flower to become a symbol of the veterans of this war.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer B is better choice because it covers all aspects of the question. It describes the origin of morphine, poppies and all aspects related to it. While answer A contains incomplete information and not well enough to cover all aspects of the question.\nAnswer B is accurate, well formulated and easy to follow because it explains the production of poppies, restrictions and its uses more comprehensively.\nSo, answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"Why is the molar gas constant equal to 0.0821 L*atm\/k*mol? When I was in high school I thought to myself, \"one day they'll explain me this\".<br \/>I'm in my second year of college and I'm still told to assume that R is = 0.0821 L*atm\/k*mol and no one has taken the time to explain me why. A teaching assistant for my physical chemistry course told me that it's defined as the Avogadro constant times the Boltzmann constant, but this doesn't really help me to understand what R is supposed to represent physically. <br \/>I guess this is not but rather Explain Like I'm a Chemistry Major.","answer_a":"The numerical value of the constant is a result of the unit we use.  If you would use the Rankine scale instead of the kelvins scale it would have another value. Rankine scale absolute temperature the degrees the same as in the Fahrenheit scale instead of Celius scale. The constant would be 9\/5 of the one you use. &#x200B; The gas constant is  Avogadro constant times the Boltzmann constant. Avrogados constant is the number of particles in a mol so if you change the calculation to particles instead of mol of particle s the constant is just Boltzmann constant Boltzmann constant is 1.380649\u00d710^\u221223 J\/K We can then quote Wikipedia \"The Boltzmann constant (kB or k) is the proportionality factor that relates the average relative kinetic energy of particles in a gas with the thermodynamic temperature of the gas.\" So it is a scaling factor between the kinetic energy of the particles and the temperature so its value depends on the unit we use. You can define units so it is 1. The https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Boltzmann_constant","answer_b":"Gases exhibit some proportional relationships:  - V ~ n: twice the amount of particles will take up twice the volume. - V ~ T: at twice the absolute temperature (measured in Kelvin), the gas takes up twice the volume. - V ~ 1\/p: at twice the pressure, the gas will take up half the volume. We can combine these three relationships into V ~ nT\/p. So if we know the volume of a given quantity of gas at a given pressure and temperature, we can calculate how it changes when we change any of these properties. The gas constant gives us a base number for that relationship: in the form you stated it, it is the volume of one mol of (ideal) gas at a pressure of 1 atmosphere and a temperature of 1 Kelvin. From this, you can then calculate the volume of *any* amount of ideal gas at *any* pressure and *any* temperature.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it describes the formulation of ideal gas constant with all the terms and relationships used. While answer A does not clear the concept and is still confusing. It contains spelling mistake of Celsius which he termed as ''celius''. It is stated ''Avrogados'' instead of Avogadro's.\nAnswer B contains all the factors and relationships that are needed for the calculation of R value.\n\"PV = nRT\nUnder standard conditions of Temperature (273 K) , Volume (22.4 L), pressure (1 atm) and for number of moles (n=1 ), we will get R as,\n\nR = 1 atm * 22.4 L\/ 1 mol * 273 K\n\n  = 0.0821 L-atm \/ mol-K\"\nThese calculations should also be included in answer B to make it well formulated and easy to follow."}
{"question":"why does caffeine make me not hate my life as much? I get the open blood vessels but not the euphoria ","answer_a":"Caffeine is a stimulant that increases alertness and energy. It can also help to improve mood and reduce stress. Caffeine works by stimulating the central nervous system. This can lead to increased alertness and energy, as well as improved mood and reduced stress. While caffeine does not necessarily make everyone happy, it can help to improve mood and reduce stress for some people.","answer_b":"You are bag of meat with chemicals inside of you. Some of those chemicals make you feel bad and some of them make you feel good. Doing things you enjoy releases some of the good chemicals. Caffeine also increases your perception of alertness and awakeness which makes doing stuff easier and therefore more pleasant.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better choice as it contains accurate and relevant information. While Answer B contains irrelevant statement like using the example of bag of meat. It states ''You are bag of meat with chemicals inside of you. Some of those chemicals make you feel bad and some of them make you feel good'' this statement is more confusing for the reader. \nCaffeine is a central nervous system stimulant of the methylxanthine class. It is used as a cognitive enhancer, increasing alertness and attentional performance. Caffeine acts by blocking binding of adenosine to the adenosine A\u2081 receptor, which enhances release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. (Wikipedia)\nAnswer A contains a statement which is unnecessarily repeated twice i.e ''increases alertness and energy. It can also help to improve mood and reduce stress.''\nAnswer A is well formulated and easy to follow, hence, it is better choice."}
{"question":"What is lycopene exactly? I noticed in my bottle of tomato ketchup how much they brag about healthy it is and that it is on their ketchup, but it's not in the ingredient or nutrition facts.<br \/>not sure with the flair though. TIA!","answer_a":"Lycopene is a carotene found in tomatoes and other red fruits and vegetables. It is a powerful antioxidant that has been linked to a number of health benefits, including a reduced risk of heart disease and cancer. While lycopene is found in a number of foods, tomatoes are by far the richest source.","answer_b":"It's a antioxydant found in tomatoes. It's not an ingredient, as it's a natural part of the tomato (and not among the classic nutrition metrics) Like other antioxydants it catches free radicals in your body wich are considered one or the reasons why we age and get cancer. There is scientific ~~evidence~~ hints it can reduce the risk of cardiovascular problems and cancer.  But ketchup isn't your best source of it (since it also contains tons of sugar). If you're really looking for something healthy try actual tomatoes, or pure tomato sauce.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it covers all the aspects of the question while Answer A contains incomplete information.\nAnswer A only focuses on the introduction of lycopene and does not answer to the second part of the question. And answer B covers both parts of the question; introduction as well as the reason why lycopene is not considered as an ingredient of ketchup.\nAnswer B contains grammatical mistake i.e ''There is scientific ~~evidence~~ hints it can reduce the risk of cardiovascular problems and cancer.'' It should be like ''There is scientific evidence:\nHints: it can reduce the risk of cardiovascular problems and cancer.''\nAs the answer B contains all aspects, well formulated and easy to follow; so, it is better choice. "}
{"question":"how do epi shots work? How are they effective against all alergies regardless of what food\/thing causes the allergy?","answer_a":"Anaphylactic reactions to an allergen causes the blood vessels in your body to dilate, or get really wide. This swelling can close off the airway which is usually what kills people. Epinephrine causes blood vessels to constrict massively, allowing the person to breath easier. I\u2019ll add that the epi is very short acting, like 10-15 minutes. So it only provides a window to give the person additional care, Benadryl and a trip to the ER are the next steps.","answer_b":"Anaphylaxis is a systemic allergic reaction that affects several organs:  Skin: hives and rash  Lungs: constriction of bronchi Airways: blood vessel dilation causing swelling  Blood pressure: vessel dilation reduces blood pressure.  Epi counteracts all of these conditions. It:  Opens up airways  reduces swelling  and increases blood pressure by acting in receptors located in the lungs and blood vessels.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it covers all aspects of the question and make the answer easy to follow than option A. Answer B is written in complex pattern which can confuse the reader. It should be written in the following pattern:\n\"Anaphylaxis is a systemic allergic reaction that affects several organs:\n1.Skin: hives and rash\n2.Lungs: constriction of bronchi Airways and blood vessel dilation causing swelling \n3.Blood pressure: vessel dilation reduces blood pressure. \nEpi counteracts all of these conditions. It Opens up airways reduces swelling and increases blood pressure by acting in receptors located in the lungs and blood vessels.\"\nIn this way, it is well structured and easy to follow for the readers.\nWhile answer A focuses only one type of allergy and does not explain the mechanism of epi shots working. It does not explain about the decrease of blood pressure and recovery through epi shots.\nSo, answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"how comes nobody is able to figure out the contents of things like Coca Cola syrup with all our current technologies at hand? ","answer_a":"Secret recipes are really a rarity, unless theres an ingredient that is not and can not be reproduced by any other entity on the planet, everything can be reverse engineered and figured out. But with that you run into things like: Why are you putting so much effort into reverse-engineering a food? And You\u2019ll receive a cease and desist letter PDQ if you\u2019re infringing on someones registered intellectual property.","answer_b":"It is difficult to figure out the contents of Coca Cola syrup because the syrup is a complex mixture of substances. The syrup contains water, sweeteners, colorings, and other ingredients. The exact proportions of these ingredients are proprietary information that Coca Cola does not disclose. Furthermore, the ingredients interact with each other in complex ways, making it difficult to identify all of the components of the syrup. Our current technologies are not able to fully analyze complex mixtures like Coca Cola syrup.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it is accurate, well formulated and easy to follow. While answer A contains irrelevant explanation like ''Why are you putting so much effort into reverse-engineering a food? And You\u2019ll receive a cease and desist letter PDQ if you\u2019re infringing on someones registered intellectual property.'' which has no link with the question being asked rather it is only focusing on reverse engineering which is irrelevant thing.\nAnswer B explains the reasons of inability to figure out the contents of things like coca cola syrup. It states ''t is difficult to figure out the contents of Coca Cola syrup because the syrup is a complex mixture of substances. The syrup contains water, sweeteners, colorings, and other ingredients. The exact proportions of these ingredients are proprietary information that Coca Cola does not disclose. Furthermore, the ingredients interact with each other in complex ways, making it difficult to identify all of the components of the syrup. Our current technologies are not able to fully analyze complex mixtures like Coca Cola syrup.'' which explains the complexity of coca cola syrup and inability of current technology in well structured way and clear the concept of the reader.\nSo, Answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"When you get a roll of tape, the tape is rolled and stuck on top of itself. So how does it not lose its stickiness then? And how does the stickiness instantly fades away when you stick it to something else and then peel of off? ","answer_a":"The roll of tape is sticky because it is coated with an adhesive. The adhesive is a substance that helps two surfaces stay together. The adhesive on the tape is designed to stick to itself and to other surfaces. When you peel the tape off of something, the adhesive is left behind on the surface.","answer_b":"There are 2 ways in which things are considered sticky. The primary being chemical and secondary being physical. Physical is a whole other subject as it deals with low level interactions of molecules (IE Gecko Tape). The one most people are familiar with is chemical and is why tape has that very distinct \"tack\" when you touch it.  The tack forms due to a reaction between the glue on the tape and the surface of whatever your trying to stick it too. When a roll of tape is rolled up, the backside has been given great care to ensure its cleaned and may sometimes be coated in a way that slows down the reaction of the glue.  While this has allowed the creation of very powerful adhesives there is many downsides to making tape that adheres stuff chemically. One of the main ones being that once the reactants in the glue have been used up, the tape is nothing more than the backing that was holding the glue in the first place. Tape is considered to have a shelf life for this very reason as common things that drive chemical reactions such as oxygen, heat, and time will cause parts of the tape to break down. This results in the tape prematurely adhering to the backing, the tack being less effective and why that edge on the tape can be hard to find. The glue has reacted with the air and bonded partially to the tape backing","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it covers all aspects of the questions and explains the whole process with scientific facts. \nWhile answer A contains incomplete information which cannot clear the doubts of reader. Answer A states ''The roll of tape is sticky because it is coated with an adhesive. The adhesive is a substance that helps two surfaces stay together. The adhesive on the tape is designed to stick to itself and to other surfaces. When you peel the tape off of something, the adhesive is left behind on the surface.'' this explains the answer of first part of the question to some extent but does not explain properly the reason of the second part of the question.\nAnswer B covers both parts of the question accurately. It states ''One of the main ones being that once the reactants in the glue have been used up, the tape is nothing more than the backing that was holding the glue in the first place. Tape is considered to have a shelf life for this very reason as common things that drive chemical reactions such as oxygen, heat, and time will cause parts of the tape to break down. This results in the tape prematurely adhering to the backing, the tack being less effective and why that edge on the tape can be hard to find. The glue has reacted with the air and bonded partially to the tape backing'' this the reason why tape lost its stickiness once, it is peeled off.\nso, answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"the half life of uranium-238 I see this text in a lot of proving earths age posts. <br \/>&gt;The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 billion years. It decays into radium-226, which in turn decays into radon-222. Radon-222 becomes polonium-210, which finally decays into a stable nuclide, lead.<br \/>I fully believe earth is 4.5 billon years old. But using this example, wouldn\u2019t earth need to be *older than that* in order to have time for uranium-238 to decay all the way down to lead? I feel like no one is ever worried we\u2019re going to run out of lead as a resource.","answer_a":"It takes 4.5 billion years for there to be a 50% chance of a given uranium atom to decay. Some will decay faster.","answer_b":"The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 billion years. This means that it takes 4.5 billion years for half of the uranium-238 atoms to decay into radium-226. Radium-226 then decays into radon-222, which in turn decays into polonium-210. Finally, polonium-210 decays into a stable nuclide, lead.  So, if the earth is 4.5 billion years old, then all of the uranium-238 would have decayed into lead. However, we still have plenty of lead on earth, which means that the earth must be older than 4.5 billion years.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better option as it is well formulated, comprehensive and easy to follow. While answer A contains incomplete information and does not follow the question correctly. Answer A states ''It takes 4.5 billion years for there to be a 50% chance of a given uranium atom to decay. Some will decay faster.'' which does not explain the reason of earth being more or less older than 4.5 billion years.\nWhile Answer B explains the information with scientific facts which accurately describe the whole process. Answer B states ''The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 billion years. This means that it takes 4.5 billion years for half of the uranium-238 atoms to decay into radium-226. Radium-226 then decays into radon-222, which in turn decays into polonium-210. Finally, polonium-210 decays into a stable nuclide, lead. So, if the earth is 4.5 billion years old, then all of the uranium-238 would have decayed into lead. However, we still have plenty of lead on earth, which means that the earth must be older than 4.5 billion years.'' which is easy to understand by the reader. \nSo, option B is better choice."}
{"question":"Why do medications for things like ADHD or other disorders that are just chemical imbalances in the brain have side-effects? Why can't they just supplement the missing chemical and leave it at that, not causing side effects? ","answer_a":"The chemical imbalance theory is simply a theory. Medical doctors still have no idea why we get depressed   They\u2019re basically throwing poop at the wall and hoping it sticks. That\u2019s the truth of it.","answer_b":"Not all chemicals just go into your bloodstream as-is (unless specifically injected into the bloodstream.) For example, we can't just drink a little vial of endorphins and get happy feelings. This can happen for a variety of reasons like but not limited to: * The digestive system destroys the chemical. * The digestive system can't absorb the chemical. * The chemical reacts with too many things in food to stay intact. So we have to find another chemical that can get absorbed properly and causes changes to the body that increase the production of the chemical we want. But *those* changes aren't necessarily limited to just producing the chemical we want, sometimes it causes other changes to the body we don't really want.  A lot of medical treatments involve tradeoffs. Sometimes it's worth increased risk of high blood pressure to be able to function more normally.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better option as it is well formulated, comprehensive and easy to follow. While answer A contains irrelevant information and does not follow the question correctly. Answer A states ''The chemical imbalance theory is simply a theory. Medical doctors still have no idea why we get depressed They\u2019re basically throwing poop at the wall and hoping it sticks. That\u2019s the truth of it.'' this statement does not explain the reasons of side effects caused by medications of disorders like ADHD and other disorders of brain.\nAnswer B states ''So we have to find another chemical that can get absorbed properly and causes changes to the body that increase the production of the chemical we want. But *those* changes aren't necessarily limited to just producing the chemical we want, sometimes it causes other changes to the body we don't really want. A lot of medical treatments involve tradeoffs. Sometimes it's worth increased risk of high blood pressure to be able to function more normally.'' which is correct and comprehensively explains the relevant information regarding the question being asked.\nSo, answer B is better option."}
{"question":"What makes diamond so hard ? Please, demystify this for me.","answer_a":"Diamonds are hard because of their tight, interlocked atomic structure. Pure diamond is made up of carbon atoms only. Each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms tetrahedrally, with four sides. The carbon atoms are close together, forming a dense crystal. That structure can be repeated indefinitely, with strong bonds in four directions. Contrast this with graphite, which is also formed from carbon atoms. But in graphite the carbon is formed into layers, with weak forces between layers. This makes graphite soft and slippery, the opposite of diamonds. So it\u2019s not the carbon that makes diamonds hard, but the tight multi-directional bonding between carbon atoms.  That bonding is created by perfectly balanced extreme heat and pressure over millions of years far underground. Geological events like volcanic eruptions then bring the diamonds to the Earth\u2019s surface to be mined. Many diamonds have imperfections or flaws that weaken the structure. But the best are almost perfect crystals, with geometrically regular forms starting at the atomic level.  Humans have learned how to create artificial diamonds in labs. Lab-grown diamonds are chemically and physically no different from natural diamonds. Nearly all industrial grade diamonds are lab-grown.  Gem quality diamonds can also be produced in the lab, and to the naked eye there is no difference from natural diamonds. It takes special instruments to tell the difference. In fact, the way the instruments tell the difference is that artificial diamonds are too perfect, lacking the traces of nitrogen found in natural diamonds. It\u2019s because of their nearly perfect geometry that if you hit them just right you can cut diamonds. But you can\u2019t scratch them except with other diamonds. And diamond grains are used by industry to grind the hardest surfaces with minimal wear to the grinding tool.","answer_b":"think of a human link...  you put 2 humans arm-linked together, easy for you to break the link between them.   but what if you have 4 of them linked? still technically easy to reach in between the arms and break the link.   but what if you shove them tightly together.   then it makes it much harder to try and separate them cuz they're jam packed together.    there you go","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer A is better choice because it is accurate, well structured and easy to follow. Answer A explains the reason behind the hardness of diamond more comprehensively. It contains relevant scientific explanation which make the answer clear for the reader.\nWhile option B answers to the question more casually without using scientific facts and uses example of human link which is not enough to explain the bonding and structure of diamond.\nAnswer A states ''Pure diamond is made up of carbon atoms only. Each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms tetrahedrally, with four sides. The carbon atoms are close together, forming a dense crystal. That structure can be repeated indefinitely, with strong bonds in four directions.'' which is perfectly correct and makes the answer clear for the reader. \nAnswer B states ''still technically easy to reach in between the arms and break the link. but what if you shove them tightly together''' such statements are irrelevant according to the chemistry of the diamond.\nSo, answer A is better option."}
{"question":"How is iron black, yet steel light grey? ","answer_a":"Grey cast iron is almost black on the outside because of the slag (surface impurities) that cling when they are cast. When you machine it, it is a dark grey.    There is also white cast iron, where iron and carbon form iron carbides, which give is a whitish colour.   Steel can be dark grey to silvery, depending on what is alloyed into it. High Speed Steel is silvery when surface machined, but when it breaks (it is quite brittle) it is also dark grey.","answer_b":"Iron and typical iron alloys like steel and cast iron are silvery grey.  Higher carbon alloys like cast iron tend to be lighter coloured than those without much carbon like wrought iron with steel being in the middle. However, iron and its alloys react with oxygen to form  rust.  Iron gets bigger when it becomes rust, which causes the rust to flake off exposing more iron to oxygen so it can rust.  Obviously, we don't want this to happen. We solve this problem by coating it with some sort of protection. Stainless steel contains additives that oxidizes to form a thin, transparent layer of protection. In other cases we coat the iron in a layer of paint or oil.  This is why swords and fancy kitchen knives need to be oiled. We also coat iron with other metals that are more corrosion resistant like zinc, chromium, or nickle. When iron is hot, it it oxidizes more rapidly, but instead of rust it forms hematite which is bluish-black and doesn't flake like rust does.  This can serve as a protective layer against oxidation that causes rust.  The hematite is somewhat fragile so it is normally protected with a layer of oil.  This is known as \"bluing\", particularly when done to firearms, and \"seasoning\" a pan is similar except that the oil is heated to smoke point which causes it to harden into a sort of plastic.  Bluing and seasoning can get quite a bit more complicated. So, iron and its alloys are all light grey with a bit of variation, but most can be covered by black hematite as part of how we protect them from rust.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better option as it contains comprehensive information and well explained. It explains all the possible reasons behind black and grey color of iron and its alloys. Answer B states ''When iron is hot, it it oxidizes more rapidly, but instead of rust it forms hematite which is bluish-black and doesn't flake like rust does.'' which explains the reason behind black color. And this statement explains the light grey color. ''Higher carbon alloys like cast iron tend to be lighter coloured than those without much carbon like wrought iron with steel being in the middle.''\nWhile answer A contains some casual and irrelevant statements which lack scientific facts. It states ''High Speed Steel is silvery when surface machined, but when it breaks (it is quite brittle) it is also dark grey.'' which is not necessarily correct.\nSo, option B is better option.\n"}
{"question":"Why do you have to eat sliced deli meat in 7 days but it can sit in the glass counter for who knows how long? ","answer_a":"It doesn't. The store only unwraps each loaf as it is needed. And only carries products it knows it will turn over.  In a busy store several loaves of popular meats will be used each day. They are used up much more quickly than the slices you take home.","answer_b":"Sliced deli meats are typically high in sodium and other preservatives, which allow them to have a long shelf life. However, these preservatives can also make the meat less healthy for you if you consume too much of them. For this reason, it is generally recommended that you eat sliced deli meat within 7 days of buying it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better option as it is well formulated, easy to follow and contains relevant information. It precisely explains the reason behind the usage of deli meat within 7 days. It states ''Sliced deli meats are typically high in sodium and other preservatives, which allow them to have a long shelf life. However, these preservatives can also make the meat less healthy for you if you consume too much of them.'' which is accurate answer according to the question. Because as deli meat begins to spoil, it becomes a breeding ground for bacteria. Therefore, you may experience a severe case of food poisoning if you or your child happen to eat expired deli meat.\nWhile answer A contains irrelevant information that does not answer to the question. It states ''In a busy store several loaves of popular meats will be used each day. They are used up much more quickly than the slices you take home.'' which is irrelevant.\nSo, answer B is better option."}
{"question":"Why do water molecules attract each other (why does cohesion happen) if they're stable\/have a neutral charge? H2O is stable\/has a neutral chrage, right? Why do they attract each other if they're stable?","answer_a":"Water molecules attract each other because they are polar molecules. This means that they have a slightly positive charge on one side and a slightly negative charge on the other. This gives them a tendency to stick together, which is called cohesion.","answer_b":"They are neutral overall but the charge  isn't balanced out everywhere in the molecule. The oxygen nucleus has eight protons and the hydrogens  only one each. So the oxygen pulls more strongly on the electron cloud, attracting more than it's fair share. As a result the oxygen has a small negative excess charge (more electrons near it on average) and the electron-deficient hydrogens a small positive one. Opposites attract so a hydrogen of one molecule is pulled by an oxygen of another resulting in strong intermolecular forces, a high surface tension and a much higher boiling point than the molecular weight would suggest.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to decide which is better option because both options are equally correct and hardly contain any irrelevant information but, still option B is better answer as it is well structured, comprehensive and easy to follow.\nAnswer A states'' Water molecules attract each other because they are polar molecules. This means that they have a slightly positive charge on one side and a slightly negative charge on the other. This gives them a tendency to stick together, which is called cohesion.'' which is correct but not well enough to explain the structure and chemistry of water molecules.\nAnswer B states ''They are neutral overall but the charge isn't balanced out everywhere in the molecule. The oxygen nucleus has eight protons and the hydrogens only one each. So the oxygen pulls more strongly on the electron cloud, attracting more than it's fair share. As a result the oxygen has a small negative excess charge (more electrons near it on average) and the electron-deficient hydrogens a small positive one. Opposites attract so a hydrogen of one molecule is pulled by an oxygen of another resulting in strong intermolecular forces...'' which perfectly explains all aspects of the question with scientific facts.\nSo, Answer B is better option."}
{"question":"does boiling water work as efficiently to put out a fire as cold water or even room temp water? Or does the molecular structure change in a certain way once heated, and in turn can steam put out a fire.","answer_a":"To answer your second question, steam is great for putting out fires. A small amount of water will turn into a great deal of steam, which removes one of the four things a fire needs (heat, fuel, oxygen, and the chemical reaction). Firefighters routinely use short bursts of water to create steam to knock down a fire. Firefighters are careful, though, because making too much steam tends to hurt humans - steam goes through bunker gear.","answer_b":"Despite what others say it would obviously qork a little worse but still work. Its still cutting off oxygen, and sure its taking some heat away but for the most part boiling water is only taking out one leg of fire triangle rather than two. (Heat, Fuel, Oxygen)","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to decide the better option because both the answers contain some mistakes. Still, Answer A is better choice because it contains comprehensive information to understand. Answer B contains a spelling mistake of ''qork'' it should be ''work''.\nAccording to scientific point of view, hot water extinguishes fire faster than cold water or the water at room temperature, as the heat that must be absorbed to convert hot water to steam is much greater than the heat absorbed in bringing the cold water up to 100 c. This is credited to a variety of factors, including high heat capacity and the high latent heat of vaporization of water. (scienceabc.com) \nAnswer A covers second part of the question only and states ''which removes one of the four things a fire needs (heat, fuel, oxygen, and the chemical reaction).'' It is not potentially correct because it can remove both heat and oxygen.\nAnswer B states ''Despite what others say it would obviously qork a little worse but still work'' this statement is also not correct because boiling water works better than others.\n\n"}
{"question":"why do some liquids turn into solid when heated? In school we learn that things go from liquid to gas when they reach certain temperature. But things like eggs and other things we cook actually go from liquid to solid. Why\/how?","answer_a":"Some liquids turn into solid when heated because of a process called phase transition. A phase transition is a change in the physical state of a substance. For example, water can exist in three different states: solid (ice), liquid, and gas (vapor). The phase transition from liquid to solid is called freezing, and the phase transition from solid to liquid is called melting.   Some substances can exist in more than one solid state. For example, carbon can exist as two different solids: graphite and diamond. The phase transition from one solid state to the other is called polymorphism.   Polymorphism is a type of phase transition in which a substance changes from one solid state to another. The two solid states have different arrangements of atoms. The atoms in the two different solid states are held together by different kinds of forces.   The phase transition from liquid to solid is called freezing. The temperature at which a liquid freezes is called the freezing point. The freezing point is the temperature at which the molecules of a substance have enough energy to overcome the forces that are holding them together in the liquid state.   The freezing point of a substance depends on the kind of forces that are holding the molecules together. For example, the freezing point of water is lower than the freezing point of alcohol. This is because the forces that are holding the molecules of water together are weaker than the forces that are holding the molecules of alcohol together.   The phase transition from solid to liquid is called melting. The temperature at which a solid melts is called the melting point. The melting point is the temperature at which the molecules of a substance have enough energy to overcome the forces that are holding them together in the solid state.   The melting point of a substance also depends on the kind of forces that are holding the molecules together. For example, the melting point of diamond is much higher than the melting point of graphite. This is because the forces that are holding the molecules of diamond together are much stronger than the forces that are holding the molecules of graphite together.","answer_b":"The answers already given are good, but I think the point where you may be getting confused is that vaporization and melting points (the point where a liquid goes to a gas, or a solid goes to a liquid respectively) only apply to pure substances, though they do generally go cooler = solid and hotter = gas with liquid in between. Eggs are not a pure substance, because as mentioned already they are water plus protein plus salts plus fats etc. which all react a little differently to being heated. A visual representation of a substance\u2019s phase changes (liquid\/solid\/gas) and the energy required to achieve them is called a phase diagram. It is technically possible to create one for a mixture of multiple different types of molecule, but the concentrations are necessary so you would have to know a lot about that egg to construct one.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer B is better choice because it contains more accurate and relevant information. While answer A only explains about the phase transition, For example; solid to liquid (melting), liquid to solid (freezing) and different forms of solids (polymorphism).\nAnswer A contains irrelevant information which is not being asked in the question. It states ''The phase transition from one solid state to the other is called polymorphism. Polymorphism is a type of phase transition in which a substance changes from one solid state to another. The two solid states have different arrangements of atoms.'' which is irrelevant.  The thing being asked in the question is the change of some liquids into solids on heating which is better explained in answer B with example of egg.\nAnswer B states ''Eggs are not a pure substance, because as mentioned already they are water plus protein plus salts plus fats etc. which all react a little differently to being heated. A visual representation of a substance\u2019s phase changes (liquid\/solid\/gas) and the energy required to achieve them is called a phase diagram.'' which better explains the fact why some liquid substances turned into solid on heating.\nSo, answer B is better choice for this question."}
{"question":"Why do bugs love the underside of rocks or fallen logs anyway?<br \/>is it the humidity? the darkness? also why?","answer_a":"It's to hide from predators, birds and rodents especially. Birds and rodents will eat the hell out of small insects so they hide to prevent this from happening, so they can continue to reproduce and keep from going extinct. Also there's a lot of moisture there too so thats a big plus","answer_b":"Humidity can play an important part, especially in warmer environments where exposed water evaporates fast enough to be dangerous for unprotected worms. Another one is that rocks provide protection from birds.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is not difficult to choose answer A, but B is not wildly different. B simply does not use as clear language. There are no false assumptions in the question. Answer A and B both cover all aspects of the question, do not have any fatal grammar mistakes, and do not contain any irrelevant information. They are also both easy to follow. There are also no incorrect statements. "}
{"question":"Why isn't there a single pill that contains all the necessary vitamins, minerals and other nutritions one needs?<br \/>","answer_a":"What would happen to the gut microbiome?","answer_b":"Because you are expected to eat some of your necessary vitamins throughout the day in your food. Vitamin pills are supplements to cover the parts that are not in everyday foods","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers are not good. There are no fatal grammar mistakes and no actual factually incorrect information, but a lack of any information in the answers. Answer A does not provide any information to the question. Answer B states that food is expected. These both do not answer the question directly. The real answer is that it is hard for your body to absorb vitamins through pills. Supplements are not ideal for your body and it is easier for your body to uptake food nutrients. "}
{"question":"Why aren't identical twins half the size of single humans?<br \/>If identical twins are created when a single fertilized egg splits on half during development, why do those two halves form into normal humans? Wouldn't they only have half of the normal mass\/size of a single-child pregnancy? I mean, if a fertilized egg splits and the two fragments can form into two normal sized humans, wouldn't that mean if the egg never split, the single human would have the mass\/size of the two twins combined? Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? Sorry if this sounds like rambling, but I can't find any information on this topic online.","answer_a":"The egg does not contain all the material of the final human being. Eggs are large by cell standards - they're about the size of the period at the end of this sentence if you're using a typical monitor - but they're much smaller than a fetus or newborn child.<br \/>And in fact, the fertilized egg *doesn't* typically split in half with identical twins. Instead, identical twins diverge a little later in development (a few days in) during the split between the cells that form the placenta and the cells that form what will eventually be the final human. A single layer of cells (called the *trophoblast*) forms the placenta, and inside that is a blob of cells (the \"inner cell mass\") that forms the embryo. In identical twins, *two* inner cell masses form instead of one. But at this point the placenta attaches to and begins receiving nutrients from the uterine wall.<br \/>So while the two embyros begin slightly smaller than they otherwise would, they have access to outside nutrients very early in development, and it's those outside nutrients that enable actual growth in size.","answer_b":"> Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? <br \/>Essentially, yes.  Identical twinning is a genetically transmitted characteristic, so the initial cell would \"know\" that it was going to twin, and would have to go through one extra division.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is not difficult to choose answer A over B. There is a false assumption in the question about when the egg splits for twins..which is addressed in A. B does not quite understand the full scope of the answer and does not explain everything needed. There is no incorrect information, just poorly written information in B. There are no fatal grammar mistakes in either answer. A does contain irrelevant information about the placenta.  I would have appreciated information about how the egg contains genetic information and nutrients. This is then divided to separate eggs which both contain the same genetic information from the mother, but maybe one or two sperm cells. The lack of full nutrients usually keeps the overall mass of the embryo lower, but does not impact the overall amount of cells. "}
{"question":"How are deep sea animals not more resilient at the surface?<br \/>This might sound like a dumb question but I promise I'm serious. I was watching a video on the depth of the ocean and it got me curious how deep sea creatures don't immediately squash under all that pressure. I did some reading on it and from what I saw, fish\/squid\/etc lack swim bladders and as a result lack anything left in their bodies to be compressed. Yet I'm still a bit confused on how these animals even open their mouths under all that weight.. how they have an open stomach. Wouldn't that be flattened as well? The only thing I could think of is that the pressure inside their bodies maybe equalize the pressure on the outside.<br \/>Which brings me the to the last part of the question. As a part of that video, I saw that a leatherback sea turtle has a maximum diving depth of 1,280 meters. Yet just before that it mentioned that the pressure that far down is roughly equivalent to a polar bear standing on a postage stamp. I can kind of overlook how fish do it, but I can't really imagine a polar bear standing on a sea turtle's face and it be just fine. I can't even imagine me being able to punch a sea turtle in the face and it being fine. Yet apparently it's somehow invincible.","answer_a":"Fill a baloon with water. Immerse it in water. What do you think the water is going to do with it?<br \/>Of course it's squishy, especially outside water, but it's not like water can somehow compress other water which is what's mostly inside most creatures.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why deep sea animals are not more resilient at the surface. One reason is that they lack swim bladders, which helps them to float. Without this, they would sink to the bottom of the ocean and be crushed by the pressure. Another reason is that they have a higher density than surface animals, which makes it harder for them to float. Finally, deep sea animals have adapted to the high pressure and cold temperatures of the deep ocean, and would not be able to survive in the warmer, shallower waters of the surface.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to decide between these two answers because neither were very good. Answer A does not give any scientific reasoning, but explains how animal density works. B is a better choice because it does attempt to explain more parts of the question. Neither answer answers the last part of the question. It does contain irrelevant information about swim bladders that the question already addressed. There are many more reasons for the deep sea animal evolution that were not mentioned. This is present in the webpage below. \n\nhttps:\/\/www.worldatlas.com\/articles\/how-do-deep-sea-creatures-survive-the-high-water-pressure.html#:~:text=A%20group%20of%20deep%2Dsea,pressure%20of%20the%20water%20outside."}
{"question":"Why does darkness in a dark room feel different than the darkness when you close your eyes?<br \/>","answer_a":"Your eyelids are not very good at blocking light. Their main job is to protect and moisturise the eyes, not prevent you seeing things, that's just a useful bonus. After all, we evolved in a world where there was very little artificial light. At night, it would be pitch black - there'd be no extra light for your eyes to block as you're trying to sleep anyway. If you pay attention next time you close your eyes in a bright environment, you'll notice that what you're seeing isn't black, it's a red glow. This is the light passing through your blood-filled eyelid skin.","answer_b":"In my experience, this comes from the fact that in one situation you do not control the darkness while the other is you in control of your shutters.<br \/>Maybe someone else can dive further into this.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"There are no false assumptions in the question. Both answers are clear, have no fatal grammar mistakes, easy to follow, and have no factually incorrect information. However, B does not really provide any information...it just states someone's personal experience with closing their eyes and their own predictions for the question. Answer A uses facts and explains the answer very well. "}
{"question":"Why do people go bald on the top of their head and still have some on the sides and not vice-versa?<br \/>","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why people go bald on the top of their head and still have some hair on the sides. One reason is that the hair follicles on the top of the head are more sensitive to a hormone called dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is a byproduct of testosterone and is found in both men and women. When DHT levels are high, it can cause the hair follicles on the top of the head to miniaturize, which leads to hair loss. Another reason is that the hair on the sides and back of the head is not as exposed to the sun and other environmental factors, which can damage the hair and lead to hair loss.","answer_b":"Seems unsettled but here\u2019s a theory:<br \/>\u201cThe most recent hypothesis suggests that the hair loss process begins during puberty, when growth of the skull and the muscles in the forehead and neck increases the tension in a tight band of tissue stretching over the top of the head. The more DHT (a type of testosterone) there is, the more these muscles contract, which causes inflammation and brings in more DHT. Over time, the DHT thickens the band of tissue, restricting the supply of blood and nutrients to the hair follicles above it. The follicles on top of the head get smaller and eventually disappear, while those on the sides of the head remain largely unaffected.\u201d<br \/>Source<br \/>https:\/\/www.sciencefocus.com\/the-human-body\/why-do-men-go-bald-from-the-top-of-their-heads\/","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"There are no false assumptions in the question. While both answers are similar, B is better formulated and gives a clearer description of the mechanism of hair loss. There are no fatal grammar mistakes between the two answers. Additionally, there is no irrelevant or factually incorrect information. "}
{"question":"why can some animals go for months without eating but humans need to eat within a couple of days?<br \/>","answer_a":"We can. [A man who weighed 456 lbs. was able to go 382 days with no food at all](https:\/\/www.sciencealert.com\/the-true-story-of-a-man-who-survived-without-any-food-for-382-days). Just like a hibernating bear, we can live an extended amount of time just on fat stores alone.","answer_b":"Humans don't need to eat within a couple of days--even without vitamin supplements you can survive a good couple of months without food. They won't be \\*pleasant\\* months by any means, but you'll survive. Water, on the other hand, is critical. Three days without that and you're almost certainly pushing up daisies.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers are not ideal, but b provides more information rather than an example. There is a false assumption that human NEED to eat every few days which is addressed by both answers. The answers are well made, have no fatal grammar mistakes, and consider all of the question. There is no factually wrong information given and no irrelevant information. "}
{"question":"Why is it so important for humans to have a balanced nutrition but not for animals?<br \/>Most animals have a fairly simple diet, carnivores eat only meat their whole life, cows eat exclusively grass etc. So why are human bodies so picky and need a balance of protein, fat, carbs etc from different sources to perform well?","answer_a":"Your question includes a few common misconceptions, one that's been addressed already.<br \/>Humans need a balanced diet, but that doesn't necessarily imply a vast array of food types. That simply means the nutritional value of our food has to cover our needs. <br \/>It doesn't have to be varied. You can very well thrive by eating the same handful of things every day.","answer_b":"The human body is much more complex than the bodies of most animals. Humans need a balance of nutrients in order to function properly. Protein, fat, and carbohydrates are all essential nutrients that the body needs in order to function.<br \/><br \/>Animals generally have a simpler diet than humans. For example, carnivores only eat meat, while cows only eat grass. However, the human body is much more complex and needs a variety of different nutrients to function properly. A balanced diet is essential for humans in order to maintain good health.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does have false assumptions about the need of both animals and human about a balanced diet. Answer A addresses this, but B does not. Animals do need a balanced diet, but their needs are based on their habitat, activity, and various other factors. However, the most important part of a balanced diet for all creatures is to obtain the needed nutrients that our body is not capable of making itself. Answer A says something similar to this, but not as clear and well-explained. B contained factually incorrect information about the complexity of humans and the correlation of that to nutrient needs. There is no irrelevant information or grammar mistakes. \n\nhttps:\/\/www.scienceabc.com\/eyeopeners\/if-human-health-requires-a-balanced-diet-how-do-animals-survive-on-such-narrow-diets.html"}
{"question":"Why do so many youth get their tonsils removed?<br \/>","answer_a":"For quite some time it was believed that they were useless leftovers from the past that we don\u2019t need anymore, vestigial organ. If they got infected it was just easier to remove them and not deal with repeat infections. Now we know that they are not a vestigial organ and are not useless. Since we know this now they try to leave them in and just deal with infections, however sometimes they do still need to come out for reasons. It won\u2019t majorly affect your life not having them, as millions of people have survived without them just fine. But they do have a use in our bodies and if they can be left in they should be.","answer_b":"Worth noting that it varies wildly according to where you are. The extremes are from 1.9\/100,000 to 11.8\/100,000 <br \/>It was very common when I was a kid in the 60s - more than a few sore throats in a year and they wanted to take them out. My parents resisted - and eventually it settled down anyway.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":" A provides a clearer example and explains the issue fully. B simply says it is based on knowledge, but there are other reasons as addressed in A. The question does not have any false assumptions. Additionally, there are no fatal grammar mistakes and both answers are well formulated and contain expected information. "}
{"question":"Why do people tell a dying person to stay awake, or to stay with them?<br \/>I see this in a lot of films and series; a person has a shotwound or some other fatal injury and the one helping them tells him\/her to \"stay with them\" or to \"don't fall asleep.\" Why do they say that? Is it just something that happens in movies? Or does it have a serious reason?<br \/>I asked my brother this question and he said that they say that to prevent people going into shock, but he answered quite unsure. And if this is the answer, why would we prevent people from going into shock. Your body goes into shock to stay alive longer, so wouldn't it be a good thing? <br \/>I couldn't find anything on google, but maybe that's just because I'm bad at finding things on google. Also, english isn't my first language, so excuse me if there are any spelling or grammar errors.","answer_a":"You're referring to somone who is dying from a grievous injury or overdose, and not of natural causes. <br \/>When alert the pituitary gland in the brain produces ACTH, vassopressin and cortisol, especially when one knows one is in danger. ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce adrenaline,  and norepinephrine.<br \/>Epinephrine, norepinephrine, vasopressin, and cortisol all act to contract blood vessels and raise blood pressure.  The first two raise heart rate and increse breathing rate. Cortisol releases glucose from the liver. <br \/>This can all reduce blood loss from an injury. It can also prevent *shock* which is a catastrophic drop in blood pressure that can be difficult to reverse once it sets in. Untreated shock typically results in loss of oxygen to the brain resulting in brain injury and rapid death.<br \/>In the case of a drug overdose or alcohol poisoning this is important as it keeps the victim breathing.","answer_b":"It\u2019s for dramatic effect. <br \/>If you were fatally wounded to the point of losing enough blood that you could go into shock and lose consciousness, you\u2019re beyond the point of your nervous system being able to keep your blood pressure high enough to power your brain.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":" The question does not have any false assumptions. Additionally, there are no fatal grammar mistakes and both answers are well formulated and contain expected information. However, answer A provides a clearer and fuller answer to the question. B addresses the answer on the surface and does not provide additional examples. "}
{"question":"How are sperms made in the body?<br \/>More specifically, how does a Sperm become X or Y sperm.","answer_a":"Not going too much into the scientificy details, mainly because I don't remember them from high school  2 decades ago, but basically the cell division that occurs to form the reproductive cells (sperm\/eggs) in humans is not the same as the cell division for none reproductive cells. <br \/>When the \"normal\" cells split, they create complete copies of each chromosome pair (your DNA is made of pairs of each chromosome. One comes from the father, one from the mother), so the child cells end up with a complete set of DNA. <br \/>Reproductive cells split the chromosome pairs. The child cells only receive one chromosome from each pair. In the case of the sex chromosome pair, a male has an XY pair and a female has an XX pair. So when a male creates reproductive cells (sperm), one sperm will receive the X chromosome and the other will have the Y chromosome.","answer_b":"When most cells divide, they copy themselves once then split once, so both copied cells have X *and* Y. Sperm basically come from 1 copy but 2 splits, so you get one X sperm and one Y sperm from the second split.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers state the same information almost word for word. However, answer A provides a clearer example for people who may not have experience in biology. The question does not have any false assumptions. Additionally, there are no fatal grammar mistakes and both answers are well formulated and contain expected information. "}
{"question":"Why dental tartar is so hard and bounds to teeth like glue? It's like a secondary tooth made of bacterias.<br \/>","answer_a":"I brush twice a day, waterpik nightly and visit dentist every 6 months. I still get tartar build up. Now here is my question, I have receding gums (already has surgery to help mitigate), why can tartar stick to teeth but they can't come up with something to coat my teeth below the gumline to protect them. <br \/>Dentistry is amazing in what they can do but this seems like a fairly simple thing to fix seeing that they can whiten, lighten, root canal, and laminate my pearly whites.","answer_b":"Dental tartar is hard because it is made up of minerals that have been deposited on the teeth. These minerals are mostly calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate, which are very hard. The bacteria in dental tartar also contribute to its hardness, as they produce a sticky substance that binds the tartar to the teeth.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question contains a false assumption about how tartar is formed from only bacteria. Answer B addresses this and states what it is formed from. All aspects of the question are covered in both answers and there are no fatal grammar mistakes. Answer A is not the easiest to follow due to clarity issues and flow between the story. It also contains irrelevant information about their own gums without directly adding information about the question to their answer. Answer B is clear and addresses the question better. "}
{"question":"If under anesthesia do you get your sleep needed for the day?<br \/>","answer_a":"No. The unconsciousness induced by both IV anesthetics and inhaled anesthetics is very different from restorative sleep. In fact, patients in ICUs who are sedated for long periods of time with some of the same medications they use in anesthesia get delirium from both a lack of sleep and a lack of proper awake time. <br \/>This is also true for prescription benzodiazepines like Ativan (lorazepam) and Xanax (alprazolam) which are often prescribed for insomnia but do not produce true sleep. <br \/>There is an IV sedative called Dexmedetomodine (precedex) that produces an unconsciousness more similar to sleep and has been shown to reduce the risk of ICU delirium vs more common medications like propofol. It is also used as an adjunct in anesthetic practice. But it is not nearly as prominent as propofol or inhaled anesthetics for a few reasons. First, it takes longer to work so after a dose you have to wait 15-30min for it to take effect (propofol is within a minute or so) and it lasts longer once it is stopped. Additionally, up until recently it was on patent and quite expensive. The patent recently expired and it is seeing increased use but I doubt it will ever become as popular as propofol.  <br \/>EDIT: Precedex also isn't a full anesthetic in standard practice so for surgery under general anesthesia it still needs to be used with another medicine like propofol or anesthesia gas.  Thanks u\/bluejay54 for the reminder.  <br \/>True ELI5: Sleep = charging your phone on airplane mode. Anesthesia = turning your phone off but not charging it. credit to u\/greatpiginthesty<br \/>I am an ICU RN and am starting anesthesia training soon.","answer_b":"There is no clear consensus on whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day. Some studies suggest that people under anesthesia do get some sleep, but it is not clear how deep or restful this sleep is. Other studies suggest that people under anesthesia do not get any meaningful sleep at all. Therefore, it is difficult to say definitively whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question has no false assumptions. Both answers address all aspects of the question and do not have fatal grammar mistakes. ANswer A is a better choice because it explains in-depthly how these drugs affect sleep. Answer B states few facts, but has no flaws. Answer A is so good at explaining and using examples that B is not even close. They are both easy to follow and are factually correct. However, Answer A is a little lengthy and contains some examples that are not necessary to the question. "}
{"question":"Why do older black tattoos look blue?<br \/>Why do black tattoos look navy blue after a few years?<br \/>I\u2019ve got a few that are looking a lot more blue than black now they\u2019re a few years old. I know age and being in the sun a lot changes tattoos colour but I\u2019ve always been super careful with tattoo specific sun screen when I\u2019m outside. <br \/>I understand tattoos can \u201cspread\u201d over time but my other coloured tattoos still are the original colour, whereas the black mostly looks dark blue now.<br \/>Why is it that black \u201cfades\u201d so fast?","answer_a":"If I recall it's because they used \"India Ink\" for most tattoos, I'm not very familiar with it but if you search online I'm sure you can find a more detailed explanation.<br \/>Edit: Quote from an article I found after searching google for 10 seconds: some Indian inks have been known to turn a grey, blue or green color while fading too making your tattoo look even worse.\"","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why older black tattoos may look blue. First, as tattoos age, the ink can spread and become thinner, making the colors appear less saturated. Second, exposure to sunlight can cause tattoo ink to fade, and black ink is particularly susceptible to this. Finally, some inks contain pigments that are not very stable and can break down over time, resulting in a change in color.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers were very similar. I had a difficult time deciding. However, I chose answer A because it contained more information. Both answers were well formulated, had no grammar mistakes, and contained no irrelevant information. I did think both answers had parts which were better than the other. I believe if they were combined, almost all information would be present. For example, answer B described the break down and spreading of black ink and how that changes the color, while the other answer described the composition of the ink. Answer A did a better job of addressing new information and providing facts about the ink. However, the answer would be strong if the composition of the dye was mentioned and why it fades to blue based on the science of the dye."}
{"question":"What is happening when you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time?<br \/>","answer_a":"When you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time, you are experiencing a migraine with aura. Auras are visual disturbances that can occur before or during a migraine. They typically last for less than an hour and can include seeing flashes of light, zig-zag lines, or blind spots. Some people also experience other aura symptoms, such as changes in smell, taste, or touch.","answer_b":"My wife gets these.<br \/>An ocular migraine is a condition where the blood vessels in the optic nerve at the back of your eye tighten and swell, resulting in various visual distortions. While classic migraines  usually result in intense headaches, sensitivity to light and loud sounds, or nausea, ocular migraines are not necessarily painful.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer b is easily the better choice. There are no false assumptions in the question and both answers are grammatically correct and consider the question. They are also both easy to follow. Answer A contains some irrelevant information about how long the vision impairment last and such, but fails to expand on what is causing the vision issue. Answer B account for that, but also has irrelevant information about their wife. "}
{"question":"why do we have goosebumps ? i know it's because of cold\/fear, but why does our body do that ?<br \/>","answer_a":"I think it\u2019s one of those ancestral features we still have to these days. Think of those mammals who use fur to get bigger in order to scary predators or fluffier to get warmer in cold weather. That\u2019s goosebumps basically!","answer_b":"It's a reaction that puffs up our body hair to trap more air to keep us warm or make us look bigger. Humans lost our fur, but not the reaction. Hope this helps","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A and B give similar answers, but answer A gives more information. Both answers contained all needed information, had no grammar mistakes, and were easy to follow. Additionally, there is no irrelevant information. However, there was some missing information. Goosebumps are a reactions to adrenaline, which is produced during times of stress on the body either: cold or scared reactions. This being said, your body tends to fluctuate in temperature during stress, so the goosebumps technically are similar for both situations. Further, the goosebumps are actually a mechanism to keep our bodies warm and trap heat under our body hair. \n\nhttps:\/\/www.scientificamerican.com\/article\/why-do-humans-get-goosebu\/"}
{"question":"why do we as humans have the urge to pick scabs so much?<br \/>","answer_a":"As the skin regrows and starts filling out, the scab that formed does not grow with it, therefore causing irritation and pulling sensation that can only be gotten rid of by removing the scab so skin can fill out normally without the restraints of a scab. Vanity is also a large driver in wanting or needing to remove a scab. The above mentioned is really quite normal. <br \/>Skin picking really only becomes a problem when it causes significant disruptions in one's every day life.<br \/> Dermatillomania is a form of obsessive compulsion disorder where a person will feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>Body dysmorphic disorder can also cause a person to feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>With both dermatillomania and body dysmorphic disorder a person's life is often disrupted by a large scale due to these compulsions.","answer_b":"I got news for ya. It isn't limited to humans. Hence, why we give our pets the \"cone of shame\". They fuck with their wounds too!","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B was easy to disregard. The answer had vulgar language and did not provide any scientific information or direct answer to the question. Additionally, there were various grammar mistakes due to the writer's use of informal language and \"texting language\". \n\nAnswer A somewhat answers the question. It mentions that the scab needs to be removed to allow for the healing to occur. This causes sensations of pulling. I would have appreciate if the answer included how these sensations often feel like an itch and make the person want to remove them. Additionally, the answer mentioned vanity as a cause. I feel like this section was irrelevant and was not part of the question. It would have been better to describe the process of rebuilding nerves and how that feeling is not pleasant. The answer was easy to follow, but the ending was also irrelevant and not related to the question. "}
{"question":"Does your body absorb all blood clots? How does it do it? Does location affect it?<br \/>","answer_a":"Kind of. Your blood will dissolve clots over time. I've got a clotting disorder and need to take thinners to make that happen faster, but for most they break down clots naturally settlement on how much blood flow there is to an area and if there's any muscle action to help break them up. They can be dangerous though when breaking up as the can travel to your heart, lungs or brain and cause death by blocking blood flow.","answer_b":"No, your body does not absorb all blood clots. Clots are usually broken down by the body's natural clotting mechanism, but some clots may persist and cause problems. Location can affect how quickly a clot is broken down. For example, clots in the veins are usually broken down more slowly than clots in the arteries.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was not easy to choose Answer A. Both answers were not the best and could have been explained better. The question had no false assumptions and both answers had no fatal grammar mistakes. However, Answer A could be written more formally. The phrase \"Kind of\" should either be attached to a sentence or rephrased. Answer B answers all parts of the question, but very broadly and does not really provide a full answer to explain the phenomenon. Answer A gave a better understanding of the blood clots, but failed to elaborate on location being a driver of difficulty for clot removal mechanisms. Additionally, answer A did have irrelevant information about their own clotting disorder. This did not explain the question any further. Finally, all information was factual. "}
{"question":"why we can't taste things when we have a stuffy nose, even though our taste buds still work?<br \/>","answer_a":"When we have a stuffy nose, the air flow to our olfactory bulb is blocked. This is the part of the brain responsible for our sense of smell. Without the olfactory bulb, we are unable to smell the molecules that we need to taste food.","answer_b":"You can only taste, with your tongue, a very small number of flavours.  Like half a dozen.<br \/>What you think of as taste is actually almost entirely smell.  We can detect millions of different smells.  When you have a stuffed nose you can't smell properly and so food \"tastes\" bland.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The clearly better answer is answer b. There are no false assumptions and no noticeable grammar mistakes. All aspects of the question were answered and easy to follow. All information was relevant, but there was factual information present in both answers. For answer A, it incorrectly stated that the olfactory bulb is lacking air, which is not true and is not the cause of a lack of taste. For answer B, they state the cause of a stuffy nose is the lack of smell. This is not actually the cause of the lack of taste from the mouth. \n\nThe correct answer should be: When you are sick, the majority of your loss of taste is due to a stuffed nose. It is shown that up to 80% of taste is contributed by the nose. However, the other cause for a lack of taste comes from the olfactory nerve. This nerve is not directly damaged, but its neighboring neurons are. This results in a weak response of the nerve to your brain. "}
{"question":"how spiders produce webs<br \/>What are webs made out of and what do spiders convert in their bodies to produce the web substance? It seems like they produce so much web for the size of their bodies.","answer_a":"Webs are made out of a protein called silk. Spiders convert the protein into a liquid form in their bodies and then secrete it through their spinnerets. The liquid silk hardens when it comes into contact with the air, forming the web.<br \/><br \/>Spiders can produce a lot of silk because they have a high concentration of the protein in their bodies. They also have special organs called spinnerets that are specifically designed for secreting the silk.","answer_b":"They have organs called spinnerets on their underside or rear. Each species of spider has a varying number of them, but usually they're in a cluster. On the end of each spinneret is a little nozzle-like spigot out of which a single silk thread comes (the silk is liquid when it's inside).<br \/>There are seven different kinds of silk gland which produce a slightly different kind of silk. No known species of spider has all of them.<br \/>The silk is pulled out of the spinneret by either gravity or one of their hind legs, and they then arrange it in a pattern of activity that differs greatly by species.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"There are no false assumptions made by either answer. No, both answers do not account for all aspects of the question. The first focuses on the substance of which silk is made of, but fails to answers how exactly the silk protein is made and how they can make so much. The other answer also lacks some information. I chose this answer because it provided a wider range of information, but it is missing the explanation of what silk actually is. There were no striking grammar mistakes in the answers. Answer B did include some irrelevant information about where the silk organs are located. Both answers were well formulated and provided information that assisted in answering the question. However, both were missing an explanation for the silk. Silk is a protein that is made in a special organ that spiders have. It is a mixture of amino acids that are nonpolar and hydrophobic, which allow for its particular function. Spiders have the same protein-making organelles, called ribosomes that we do. Our ribosomes can make many proteins daily, which accounts for a large amount of silk they can make. "}
{"question":"why are the ones responsible for instigating the Jan 6th insurrection not in jail? ","answer_a":"Proving an allegation of that level of severity would require a lot of strong evidence; if you jail someone over it before you have that evidence ready, you risk utterly botching the investigation or subsequent court proceedings and having the person walk away on technicalities. Given the number of defendants charged\/arrested\/facing trial\/convicted, it's likely quite a few of them have been\/will add more information through interrogation\/interview that will potentially build up evidence as well. When you're talking about 500+ defendants, it's going to take a while to sort through everything they say and corroborate\/disprove things.<br \/>This applies especially when the people concerned are high-ranking public figures are involved, or wealthy citizens who can afford top notch legal support, and when a misstep could end up further fueling political violence\/extremism.<br \/>Federal prosecutors in particular tend not to file charges\/order an arrest until they are absolutely certain a conviction will occur.","answer_b":"for the same reason almost no one from the BLM riots are in jail, its politically damaging to jail \"dissidents\" and can easily be spun into a rally call by the opposition.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I chose option \"A\" as the correct answer because the reasoning is abundantly factually compared to the snarky comment from \"B\". For an arrest to be made, there has to be probable cause for an arrest to be made. Most of those citizens that were involved in the January 6th insurrection had their faces concealed, and it would be nearly impossible to find and convict those individuals. If law enforcement were actively present and arresting people at the location of the insurrection, it would provide better evidence for an arrest and a POSSIBLE conviction. "}
{"question":"Why do people on death row stay there for months or even years before being executed? ","answer_a":"basically because of so called liberals. recently the prolific serial killer Rodney Alcala(creepiest person ever) died on death row in California at age 77. im sure he was warm and safe when he died.","answer_b":"Because the idea of the death penalty comes with an assumption that, since it is the ultimate punishment, it can never be allowed to happen to an innocent person. During the inmate's stay an extensive and expensive investigation is performed to ensure in absolute certainty there is no shade of doubt that this person actually did what they're being executed for.<br \/>If you want to see what happens when this process is NOT implemented, look into the case of John Christie and Timothy Evans.<br \/>In Great Britain, in January 1950, Timothy Evans turned himself in to the police, claiming he had accidentally caused the death of his wife by giving her medicine that was supposed to cause a miscarriage - Evans' wife got pregnant again soon after the birth of their daughter and the two could not afford the second child and abortion was illegal at the time. Evans claimed to have initially panicked, hid the body in a nearby sewer, gave his daughter to relatives, and tried to flee the country, but then, overcame with guilt, has turned himself in.<br \/>Police arrived in the sewer where Evans claimed to have hidden the body and not only didn't find any but realized a single man could not open the hatch to get down, as it took two officers to lift. Pressed Evans admitted to omitting the truth - he wasn't the one who gave his wife the medicine, it was his downstairs neighbour, John Christie. Christia informed Evans of the tragedy and convinced him it would be better if he disappeared for some time so no one connects him to his wife's death. Christie said he will hid the body in the sewers and make his relatives take care of Evans' daughter. Evans was covering him out of gratitude, understanding his wife's death was an accident.<br \/>Christie denied everything and suggested Evans may have hidden the body in the small garden adjacent to their apartment complex - he has found a part of it where it seems someone uprooted the earth. Quickly digging the cops found bodies of Evans' wife and daughter, both strangled.<br \/>Pressed again Evans signed a testimony admitting to having murdered his wife and child but later claimed he was forced to do it under threats of violence. In the court, he tried to accuse Christie but as someone who already has changed his testimony multiple times and had a shady past, his word could not stand to the word of respected former police officer Christie was. Evans was found guilty and executed in March of 1950.<br \/>In 1953 Christie moved out of his apartment. The new tenant immediately began renovating the place. And behind wallpaper in the kitchen found the bodies of three women. After informing the police someone looked into Evans' case and realized they never searched the whole garden, despite reports of dogs finding human bones in it. They never bothered to ask how Evans accessed a garden only Christie had the key to. They never looked into reports of Christie's violent behavior, including an assault on a woman. Digging through the garden revealed more bodies, from before and after Evans' case. Christie was apprehended and among his possessions was a newspaper clip of Evans being found guilty, as if it was something he was proud of.<br \/>John Christie was put on trial and found guilty of the murder of at least 8 women but the story doesn't end there. His sentencing made people question whenever Evans was not innocent and just framed by Christie. At the time government of Britain was very supportive of the death penalty and argued there is no way such a sentence would be accidentally performed on an innocent person. To avoid losing face the government called not one but two committees that both tried to claim they believe Evans was indeed guilty. Of course, it was a lie as no one would believe two people were living next to each other, killing the same type of victims at the same time and hiding them in the same spot and somehow did not notice each other. Meaning that defending the death penalty caused the spread of corruption among government officials of all levels. the case made a mockery of justice and is seen as one of the reasons why Great Britain abolished the death penalty.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer of the two. This answer is well formulated and easy to follow. The answer provides a reference regarding the answer and has great examples. Answer A is objective, has grammar issues and does not provide examples or is well formulated. Death Row inmates may wait years until l their execution first to allow proper appeals to be pursued by the defense. Additionally, it allows the state to verify that all the evidence has been processed, accounted and that the right person in being executed. (https:\/\/www.thv11.com\/article\/news\/local\/heres-why-it-takes-so-long-to-execute-a-death-row-inmate\/91-430235541)"}
{"question":"What's the difference between \"Appeal to Authority\" fallacy and \"citing an authority\" Whats the difference","answer_a":"&#x200B;<br \/>\"I believe that the earth is round because I asked an Astrophysicist and they told me it was true.\"<br \/>This is 'citing an authority'.  You are citing information from a person who is an authority on the subject of the question.<br \/>&#x200B;<br \/>\"I believe that the earth is flat because my elected Senator told me so.\"<br \/>This is an 'appeal to authority' fallacy.  You are citing information from a person who is in an authoritative position, but who may not necessarily have knowledge of the subject of the question.<br \/>&#x200B;<br \/>\\*Apologies for the potentially political nature of the example question, I couldn't think of a better one.","answer_b":"We use different standards of proof when arguing. Sometimes, like in a mathematical proof, we want something that absolutely is correct if our premises are correct. <br \/>Since we can never say \"This Authority is absolutely correct about all their assertions\", then trying to claim such is a logical fallacy. <br \/>However, on a more practical heuristic level where absolute certainty isn't the goal but a reasonable guess at what's probably right is, then citing an authority is a reasonable guideline if you think the methods for declaring someone an authority were justified. For instance, if a great majority of the doctors in your country are well-trained, and they think epidemiologists are the best at knowing how to handle disease outbreaks, and they think that, say, Anthony Fauci is the best viral epidemiologist out there, then it might be reasonable to accept his advice on the subject as persuasive.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer. Answer B is well formulated and easy to follow. Furthermore, they cite relevant information.  Additionally, B provides great examples. \"Appeal to Authority\" means, \"Insisting that a claim is true simply because a valid authority or expert on the issue said it was true, without any other supporting evidence offered\". This means that since it came from the mount of a person that is a \"expert\" in that realm, it is to be true. Citing an authority, is that stating what has been said from a creditable source. https:\/\/www.logicallyfallacious.com\/logicalfallacies\/Appeal-to-Authority"}
{"question":"why do we need to abide the law? From when does a human need to abide the law, who've set the first laws, who decided that every human needs to respect it? so many questions, so few answers","answer_a":"Laws are enforced by the government and police force. In the past, laws would have been enforced formally or informally by other members of your community.<br \/>If I get together with a bunch of people, we could all decide that stealing is wrong. We could then agree on a punishment for stealing. If someone tries to steal, the rest of the society would band together to enforce this punishment. I'm incentivized to not steal because the consequences of stealing are worse than the benefits I'd gain.","answer_b":"There are a number of reasons why we need to abide by the law. First and foremost, the law is designed to protect our society and our individual rights. Without laws, there would be chaos and anarchy. The law provides a framework for us to live our lives in a safe and orderly manner.<br \/><br \/>In addition, the law is a way of ensuring that everyone is treated fairly and equally. The law sets out clear rules and guidelines that everyone must follow. This helps to prevent discrimination and unfair treatment.<br \/><br \/>Finally, obeying the law is a way of showing respect for the government and the legal system. By following the law, we are indicating that we support and believe in the system.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better of the two. B is well formulated and easy to follow. Additionally, it contains examples and relevant information regarding the reasons why one should follow the law. We must follow rules because it keeps society in from becoming anarchic. It provides us the comfort that those who commit illegal acts, will be prosecuted. Furthermore, it deters people from committing those horrendous acts. "}
{"question":"How a bill gets introduced to the U.S. Congress Just curious about this.","answer_a":"First you have to be a member of Congress, either a representative or a senator. Then you have secret meetings with lobbyists and wealthy donors to your campaign. These people are often hired or bribed by companies who want the law to be changed to help them make more money, or by \"think tanks\", which is are secret businesses devoted to influencing politicians and public opinion. At the meeting, you will learn what goals and agenda they want you to pursue, and what aspects of current law they are unhappy with.<br \/>The lobbyists or think tank will have lawyers on hand, who will secretly write up a bill for you, which contains the desired changes to the law. The bill will have your name on it, as if you're the author. But you can't write it yourself, because getting elected to this law-writing, law-debating office did not require you to actually know anything about law; it was part popularity contest, part referendum on whatever issues you successfully dumbed down to be a choice good & evil.<br \/>\\[obviously, a cynical take...\\]","answer_b":"Boy: Woof! You sure gotta climb a lot of steps to get to this Capitol Building here in Washington. But I wonder who that sad little scrap of paper is?<br \/>I\u2019m just a bill.<br \/>Yes, I\u2019m only a bill.<br \/>And I\u2019m sitting here on Capitol Hill.<br \/>Well, it\u2019s a long, long journey<br \/>To the capital city.<br \/>It\u2019s a long, long wait<br \/>While I\u2019m sitting in committee,<br \/>But I know I\u2019ll be a law someday<br \/>At least I hope and pray that I will,<br \/>But today I am still just a bill.<br \/>Boy: Gee, Bill, you certainly have a lot of patience and courage.<br \/>Bill: Well I got this far. When I started, I wasn\u2019t even a bill, I was just an idea. Some folks back home decided they wanted a law passed, so they called their local Congressman and he said, \u201cYou\u2019re right, there oughta be a law.\u201d Then he sat down and wrote me out and introduced me to Congress. And I became a bill, and I\u2019ll remain a bill until they decide to make me a law.<br \/>I\u2019m just a bill<br \/>Yes I\u2019m only a bill,<br \/>And I got as far as Capitol Hill.<br \/>Well, now I\u2019m stuck in committee<br \/>And I\u2019ll sit here and wait<br \/>While a few key Congressmen discuss and debate<br \/>Whether they should let me be a law.<br \/>How I hope and pray that they will,<br \/>But today I am still just a bill.<br \/>Boy: Listen to those congressmen arguing! Is all that discussion and debate about you?<br \/>Bill: Yeah, I\u2019m one of the lucky ones. Most bills never even get this far. I hope they decide to report on me favourably, otherwise I may die.<br \/>Boy: Die?<br \/>Bill: Yeah, die in committee. Oooh, but it looks like I\u2019m gonna live! Now I go to the House of Representatives, and they vote on me.<br \/>Boy: If they vote yes, what happens?<br \/>Bill: Then I go to the Senate and the whole thing starts all over again.<br \/>Boy: Oh no!<br \/>Bill: Oh yes!<br \/>I\u2019m just a bill<br \/>Yes, I\u2019m only a bill<br \/>And if they vote for me on Capitol Hill<br \/>Well, then I\u2019m off to the White House<br \/>Where I\u2019ll wait in a line<br \/>With a lot of other bills<br \/>For the president to sign<br \/>And if he signs me, then I\u2019ll be a law.<br \/>How I hope and pray that he will,<br \/>But today I am still just a bill.<br \/>Boy: You mean even if the whole Congress says you should be a law, the president can still say no?<br \/>Bill: Yes, that\u2019s called a veto. If the President vetoes me, I have to go back to Congress and they vote on me again, and by that time you\u2019re so old\u2026<br \/>Boy: By that time it\u2019s very unlikely that you\u2019ll become a law. It\u2019s not easy to become a law, is it?<br \/>Bill: No!<br \/>But how I hope and I pray that I will,<br \/>But today I am still just a bill.<br \/>Congressman: He signed you, Bill! Now you\u2019re a law!<br \/>Bill: Oh yes!!!","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Definitely option \"A\". I do not understand what option \"B\" is trying to say. Answer \"A\" provides great detail on the process on how a bill is introduced to congress. https:\/\/www.usa.gov\/how-laws-are-made#:~:text=A%20bill%20can%20be%20introduced,chamber%20to%20be%20voted%20on."}
{"question":"What's the difference between decriminalization and legalization? ","answer_a":"Decriminalization is the process of removing criminal penalties for a particular activity, while legalization is the process of making that activity legal. For example, decriminalization of marijuana would mean that possessing small amounts of the drug would no longer be a criminal offense, while legalization would mean that marijuana would be regulated and taxed like any other product.","answer_b":"In practise, the difference is that you won't be arrested for the offence along (eg possession of decriminalised drugs) but if you're being arrested for something else, like assault\/robbery etc they'll charge you with possession as part of that arrest. Basically, it makes it defacto legal, so long as you're not engaged in other criminal activity","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A was the better choice. It explained the difference between decriminalization and legalization. Additionally, option \"A\"  provided a great example. \nAnswer \"B\" misspelled the word \"practice\". Additionally, the answer to the question does not identify which is decriminalization and legalization. \n\nAs stated, decriminalization mean that it is still deemed illegal, but the court systems would not actively prosecute those that commit the crime. Legalization means that the said \"crime\" is not deemed illegal but legal. https:\/\/www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov\/pmc\/articles\/PMC6181739\/#:~:text=Legalization%20of%20cannabis%20is%20the,act%2C%20article%2C%20or%20behavior."}
{"question":"What is a filibuster? I keep hearing about it but I truly don\u2019t understand what it means and why it\u2019s such a big deal?","answer_a":"A filibuster is a parliamentary procedure where debate on a bill is extended, essentially preventing a vote from taking place. This can be done by any senator, and in the past, it was used as a way to stall civil rights legislation. Nowadays, it's often used as a tactic to delay or prevent a vote on a bill, or to force the Senate to reach a 60-vote supermajority.","answer_b":"Originally, senators debated bills or confirmations. A senator can speak as long as he wants in this debate, and in the past they spoke for days to delay a bill, even reading from a phone book to pass the time. That's a filibuster. The rest of the Senate can shut him up with 60 votes to allow debate to continue (cloture). The Senate could only consider one bill at a time, so this held up the entire work of the Senate, even stopped the people of the same party from getting their bills heard. Filibusters were very politically expensive and individually exhausting, so they didn't happen much. <br \/>Over the years this has evolved. Back in the 1970s the Democrats allowed two legislative tracks, making it less politically expensive. The number of filibusters shot up after that. It eventually involved into not having to actually speak, and now any senator can stall a bill simply by saying so. Filibusters are now politically cheap, so they happen all the time, any bill or confirmation that is in any way contentious.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I believe option \"A\" is the better choice as it explains the meaning of a filibuster. Option B lacks formal writing and even states the words, \"to shut him up\".  Furthermore, Option \"B\"'s last sentence is more opinion based. Answers appear correct. https:\/\/www.senate.gov\/about\/powers-procedures\/filibusters-cloture.htm"}
{"question":"Why are sex offenders registered in the national registry, but other serious crimes like robbery and murder is not? ","answer_a":"it's mainly a political agenda to \"protect the kids\"  because kids being sexually abused is worse than kids being murdered.","answer_b":"Some sex offenders are very likely to reoffend. We should keep those folks locked up, but instead we decided to let them out (rape and sexual assault sentencing guidelines are ridiculously light).<br \/>Instead of increasing sentences, we decided to let these dangerous folks out, lump them together with less dangerous people guilty of things like indecent exposure while intoxicated, and put them on a list that prevents them from rejoining society in a meaningful way.<br \/>We should not have this list. Many of the people on it should still be in prison. Let out nonviolent drug felons to make room.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Option \"A\" is the better option. Option A does have spelling mistakes as in the first word \"It's\". But both \"A\" and \"B\" are extremely opinionated, and I personally would not use either one.  The Sex Offenders Registry's List is to assist in the protection of our youth and inform the public of those that have been found guilty of being a sex offender. This method serves as a deterrent from future sex offenders to commit the crime. https:\/\/dpscs.maryland.gov\/onlineservs\/socem\/default.shtml#:~:text=Maryland%20Sex%20Offender%20Registry%20Disclaimer&text=The%20public%20information%20maintained%20by,children%20and%20other%20sexual%20offenses."}
{"question":"Why criminals need to throwing away the guns after committing a serious crime ","answer_a":"The act of disposing of a weapon can be an attempt to distance oneself from a crime.  If the police see that someone was killed with a specific type of handgun, and then through their investigation, they discover that you have that handgun in your possession, it's a huge help towards solving the crime and prosecuting the criminal.  Disposing of the weapon could provide a means of deniability if the weapon is found, for example a criminal may say \"Oh someone stole that gun from me a month ago and I haven't seen it since.\"  Plausible defense if the gun is found in a lakebed, not so much if it's found in your sock drawer.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why criminals might choose to get rid of their guns after committing a serious crime. One reason is that it could help them avoid getting caught by the police. If the police find the gun at the crime scene, they could use it to trace the gun back to the owner and then to the criminal. Another reason is that it could help the criminal avoid getting caught with the gun in their possession. If the police stop the criminal and find the gun, they could arrest the criminal for possession of a firearm.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Between \"A\" and \"B\", I believe that \"A\" is the better option. Though both \"A\" and \"B\" are similar, \"A\" has better examples of describing the reason for of disposing of a weapon after committing a crime. Criminals throw away the weapon after the crime to limit their suspected involvement and connection to the said crime. If the said criminal were to be caught after the disposal of the weapon, it would be difficult for the prosecutor to prove that the defendant commit the crime. Additionally, depending where you dispose the weapon, the biological elements may effect the probability of obtaining DNA or even fingerprints when CSI attempt to lift fingerprints or obtain biological evidence. https:\/\/ncpro.sog.unc.edu\/manual\/229-2"}
{"question":"Why do some defendants appear in court all dressed up while others appear in prison uniforms? Clearly, those wearing prison garb are going to get treated differently.","answer_a":"As a general rule, defendants are allowed to change into proper attire when they attend court dates for the exact reasons you have mentioned - the jumpsuit is likely to be prejudicial to a jury.<br \/>However, those clothes are not provided by the state.  If a defendant is unable to acquire suitable clothing, they will appear as they are.","answer_b":"Rule 2.<br \/>Better to check r\/answers or r\/ask_lawyers.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I chose option \"A\" because option \" does not provide an answer and solely states \"Rule 2.\nBetter to check r\/answers or r\/ask_lawyers.\". Answer \"A\"'s provided information appears to be correct. It depends on the situation of when the Defendant would wear formal attire compared to their prison attire. First, it would depend on the reason the defendant is going to court. For example, if the hearing is for a postponement of the case, it may not be necessary for the defendant to wear a suit. Additionally, it depends of the defendant has a suit to wear. From my personal experience, most of the time our defendants do not have the funds to buy a nice suit for court. Our office has used suits that we give to our clients to wear. \n\n"}
{"question":"Theoretically, is there any limitations to stem cell treatment? Is it just so badass that it can cure everything or is there limitations that I don\u2019t know?","answer_a":"We don't know.  Currently it can't cure anything.  There is a lot of thinking that it can do this or that or fix this or that or whatever, but none of it has really panned out yet.  <br \/>They've been talking about stem cells fixing spinal cord injuries for as long as I can remember, but so far, no fix.","answer_b":"There are a few potential limitations to stem cell treatment. First, stem cells can sometimes be difficult to obtain. Second, stem cells may not be effective for all types of diseases or conditions. Third, there is a risk that the stem cells may not integrate properly into the body. Finally, there is a risk of side effects associated with stem cell treatment.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Option B is the better answer. It appears to be better formulated and is easier to follow compared to \"A\". Answer \"A\" is completely opinionated. Additionally, \"A\" does not provide any facts to support its statement. "}
{"question":"Prison sentences that go way beyond an average lifespan. I'm talking 100-1000 year sentence ","answer_a":"Several reasons<br \/>It sends a signal as to how severe the crime is. The justice system is telling us that this person did stuff bad enough to be incarcerated for more than the rest of their life.<br \/>It helps the victims and survivors to see that the crime against them has been recognized. If you have a single \"life\" sentence for someone that killed four people, the families of those four people are just seeing it as a single crime. However, 25 years for each adding to a hundred years in total acknowledges them as four individual crimes. There's perhaps a little more comfort in that, and a sense of justice served.<br \/>And it helps make more informed decisions about the possibility of parole or clemency in the future. Dude got a life sentence? Maybe 20 years served is enough. Dude got a 1000 year sentence? They ain't EVER getting out.","answer_b":"This is mostly an issue in states where prison sentences can stack upon each other. 5 years for three robberies make 15 years in total. This is not done in many states as far as I am aware. <br \/>E.g. most states in the european union take all charges known into a single court trial and get a prison sentence out covering all charges into one. <br \/>Also many european countries have a max-lifetime sentence which cannot be extend under normal circumstances. E.g. in germany its 15 years IIRC. Which is a fairly significant span of your life.<br \/>Because longer prison sentences do not stop crime in large, nor do they help with the reintegration of criminals into society. Something most modern justice systems try to achieve. Instead they just cost money, lead to overcrowed prisons and offer little to no benefit for society at large.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I believe that option \"B\" is the better answer. First, the question, \"Prison sentences that go way beyond an average lifespan. I'm talking 100-1000 year sentence\" is a statement.  B explain correctly why the prison sentences may go way beyond the average life span. Each state is different and a life sentence may be different from state to state. For example someone murders 3 people and giving a life sentence of all 3 people. In order for that person to be eligible for parole, the defendant may need to serve at least 20 years of that sentence. In this example, since it is 3 separate charges, the defendant wouldn't be eligible until 60 years of serving the sentence. https:\/\/www.nolo.com\/legal-encyclopedia\/why-judges-hand-multiple-life-sentences.html"}
{"question":"Why was prohibition of alcohol part of the constitution when other things have been federally outlawed without an amendment? Is there a reason prohibition could not have been a series of laws passed rather than being ratified into the constitution?","answer_a":"Rule 2.<br \/>Better to r\/askanamerican or r\/ask_lawyers about this.","answer_b":"Back then they followed the Constitution\u2019s federalism framework. The feds didn\u2019t have the power to ban something throughout the country through law. It had to be an amendment. Since then they\u2019ve taken far more power, so they can ban other things today.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Option \"B\" is the better answer. First, answer \"A\" refers to \"Askanamerican\" and does not provide and answer. Answer \"B\" thoroughly explains the reasoning behind the prohibition. The last sentence in \"B\" is opinionated  and should be removed. The reason the prohibition was an amendment and not law because the federal government does not have to power to regular intrastate commerce and in order to prohibit the selling of alcohol throughout the country, it had to be an amendment.  https:\/\/history.stackexchange.com\/questions\/1201\/what-were-the-reasons-for-making-prohibition-a-constitutional-amendment#:~:text=Prohibition%20required%20a%20constitutional%20amendment,banned%20the%20sale%20of%20alcohol."}
{"question":"How does adverse possession work? (squatters rights)<br \/> How can people just \"squat\" long enough that they are allowed to be there? If I stopped paying rent, I can't just stay and live there forever for free? So what am I not understanding about adverse possession? Hypothetically, if I trekked onto someone's private acreage and was able to go undetected for a set amount of time, that land could just become mine after long enough? Doesn't make sense!","answer_a":"Sovereign citizens and Moorish Americans would like you to believe that you can claim property by just squatting for a few years, but 99% of the time that is not the case, and you'll end up in jail. And if you forged a lease agreement, like so many do, you'll be going to federal prison. *That's the bad one where dropping the soap is a thing.*","answer_b":"Adverse possession is a legal doctrine that allows a person to gain ownership of a piece of property through continuous, exclusive, and uninterrupted use. In order to successfully claim adverse possession, the squatting individual must meet certain requirements set forth by state law, which vary from state to state. Generally speaking, the squatter must have been using the property for a certain period of time (usually 5-20 years), in a way that is open and notorious (meaning that the owner is aware of the squatter's use of the property), and with the intent to possess the property (meaning that the squatter must have the intention of using the property as their own). If these requirements are met, the squatter may be able to gain legal ownership of the property.<br \/><br \/>There are a few exceptions to the rule of adverse possession. For example, if the property is owned by the government or if the squatter is a tenant of the property owner, the squatter will not be able to claim adverse possession. Additionally, some states have laws that specifically prohibit adverse possession (meaning that even if the requirements are met, the squatter will not be able to gain ownership of the property).<br \/><br \/>So, in answer to your question, yes, it is possible for a squatter to gain legal ownership of a piece of property through adverse possession. However, there are a number of requirements that must be met in order for this to happen.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer. It is well formulated and easy to follow. Additionally, it provides examples.  Each state is different regarding squatters' rights. For example, in Maryland, you must bring the case to the district court in order for them to legally remove someone. Answer A is very opinionated and does not provide valid evidence of what is being stated.\n\n\nhttps:\/\/www.peoples-law.org\/house-guest-or-squatter-refuses-leave"}
{"question":"When and for what reason did the US get rid of \"Dead or Alive\" for bounties? I was playing RDR2 and just got curious.","answer_a":"I think the intent was less \u201cGo shoot this guy lol\u201d and more just meaning that you\u2019ll still get the reward if you kill in self defense. For instance Jesse James was wanted \u201cDead or Alive,\u201d but when Robert Ford just shot him in the back he was convicted of murder.  <br \/>Bounty hunters still exist, and they can kill in self defense (as can anybody else), so they never really went away even if that specific wording did.","answer_b":"Most were ended in the 1950's although the US did put a  \"Dead or Alive\" bounty on Osama Bin Laden. So they do exist in certain situations.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers do not flow easily. Answer B would be the better of the two. Each state is different. For example, there was a case of Texas bounty hunter who attempted to arrest a man in a car dealership and killed three men. This issue has raised questions on the legalities of allowing bounty hunters to bring in the suspect, \"Dead or Alive\". To answer the questions, it is not widely practiced, but there are currently still some states that allow the whole, \"Dead or Alive\" mantra. \n\nhttps:\/\/www.law.cornell.edu\/wex\/due_process"}
{"question":"How is it that lawsuits which were so obviously filed out of spite, anger, or by people clearly in the wrong, aren\u2019t throw out immediately by the judge? Hypothetical example: Burglar sues home owner for $500K for injuries sustained while breaking into home.  In recent years, more and more professionals are afraid to do the right thing because \u201cwe might get sued\u201d even if they did nothing wrong. Why are people allowed to weaponize the courts like this?","answer_a":"I see now that my actions were misguided lol\ud83d\ude2c","answer_b":"Not done with law school yet but I might be able to lend a little insight: what you\u2019re talking about is usually called a \u201cfrivolous\u201d claim. Typically the other sides\u2019 lawyer would just file a motion to dismiss which, if the complaint was deemed frivolous, would be granted. Usually when you hear these scary stories about \u201cinnocent guy loses 500k case to his burglar\u201d there\u2019s a lot more to the story than what you\u2019re being told. The McDonalds coffee suit is a perfect example because it wasn\u2019t ridiculous at all but gets portrayed that way (wonder who\u2019s behind that?), the coffee was heated to a degree that would never be safe to serve to a customer and resulted in very serious burns yet it often gets twisted as \u201clook how ridiculous people are, they\u2019ll sue even over coffee that\u2019s a little too warm\u201d.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better answer. First, the responder refers to themself as law students. Additionally, the information provided is correct. Most cases that appear to be frivolous cases, may actually have more information than what is being provided. A great example presented is the Mcdonald's case. In this case, a woman sues McDonald's because her coffee is hot. It was discovered that McDonald's was serving the coffee at the time of the incident was dangerously hot and well above the McDonald's operations manual required temperature of 180 to 190 degrees. Furthermore, it was even proved that McDonalds knew about the coffee being extremely hot and did nothing about it. So when the woman was getting the coffee from the drive though worker and the lid became loose and spilled, it caused third-degree burns to the woman and required her to seek medical attention. This woman actually attempted to settle with McDonalds by having them pay her hospital bills, but McDonalds denied it and kept counteroffering with low amounts. This is the reason why the incident went to trial. \n\nMc Donalds has really good attorneys who are willing to advertise that the woman was trying to get money from McDonald's because of hot coffee trying to cover the fact that it was because of their negligence. \n\nReferences\n\nhttps:\/\/www.caoc.org\/?pg=facts "}
{"question":"How can the Texas House Speaker ban the word \u201cracism\u201d from being used in a legislative session? Can he restrict the free speech of Texas\u2019 House Members? Is this legal?","answer_a":"The Texas House Speaker can ban the word \"racism\" from being used in a legislative session by issuing a formal directive to House Members. This directive could state that the use of the word \"racism\" is prohibited in any official capacity during the session. House Members would then be required to adhere to this directive or face consequences, such as being removed from the session or being censured.<br \/><br \/>The Speaker's ability to restrict the free speech of House Members is derived from the House's rules of order. These rules give the Speaker significant authority to regulate the conduct of Members and to enforce decorum in the chamber. While the Speaker's authority is not absolute, it is generally upheld by the House as long as the Speaker is acting in good faith and in the interest of maintaining order.<br \/><br \/>The legality of the Speaker's actions would likely be challenged on the grounds that they violate the First Amendment right to free speech. However, the Supreme Court has held that the First Amendment does not protect all forms of speech, and that the government can place reasonable restrictions on speech in certain circumstances. It is possible that a court would find that the Speaker's actions are permissible under the First Amendment, although this is by no means certain.","answer_b":"Technically the floor of a congress is NOT a place with full freedom of speech. There is a system called \"parliamentary rules\" that dictates who can speak when and, often, what they are allowed to speak about. These rules are a little different for every lawmaking body, but there are some common ideas.<br \/>The House Speaker in Texas is able to set parliamentary rules so long as procedures are followed. That can include defining what counts as acceptable speech. The procedures to change the rules might require a vote, but if the vote passes then that's that.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Option \"A\" is the better choice. Option A was well formulated and easy to follow. Furthermore, it provide information to support the reasoning. (https:\/\/thehill.com\/homenews\/state-watch\/569671-texas-state-house-speaker-bans-the-word-racism-amid-voting-bill-debate\/)"}
{"question":"Can you be arrested by the military? Would they typically count as law enforcement? ","answer_a":"You can be arrested by the military police, if you are in the military.  But the military is not civilian law enforcement.  The national guard is sometimes called in for civilian issues, and in that capacity they can detain you, but I believe it's up to local law enforcement to officially arrest you.  I could be wrong on that.","answer_b":"Yes, you can be arrested by the military. They typically count as law enforcement.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"First, answer A is completely false and incorrect. I can personally attest that Military Police can arrest civilians but in certain situations. That situation is if the civilian commits a crime on a military instillation. If the offense occurs on a military base the offense is considered a federal crime due to its location.\n\nTo clarify, MP's can arrest civilians if the offense has occurred on the military installation. MPs can not go to a neighboring cities or towns unless ordered. \n\nhttps:\/\/www.ojp.gov\/ncjrs\/virtual-library\/abstracts\/military-police-authority-over-civilians-they-look-police-they-act#:~:text=Management%20Center%20(TFMC)-,MILITARY%20POLICE%20AUTHORITY%20OVER%20CIVILIANS%20%2D%20THEY%20LOOK%20LIKE%20POLICE%2C%20THEY,POLICE%2C%20BUT%20ARE%20THEY%20POLICE%3F&text=MILITARY%20POLICE%20HAVE%20NO%20STATUTORY,THE%20NECESSITY%20TO%20MAINTAIN%20ORDER."}
{"question":"What is \u201cage of consent\u201d Just saw an advice post about a 16 y\/o worried about dating an 18 y\/o boy she likes. Seems like that\u2019d be the definition of \u201cconsent\u201d, yet many people in the thread were concerned about legality.","answer_a":"In the context of relationships and dating, the age of consent refers to the minimum age at which one person is legally allowed to engage in sexual activity with another person. In most jurisdictions, the age of consent is 16 years old, which means that anyone under the age of 16 is not legally allowed to consent to sexual activity. However, there are a few exceptions to this rule, such as if the two people areClose in age (e.g. within 3 years of each other) or if they are married.<br \/><br \/>In the case of the 16 year old girl and the 18 year old boy, the age of consent would be 18 years old. This means that the 16 year old girl is not legally allowed to consent to sexual activity with the 18 year old boy. However, as long as the 18 year old boy is not more than 3 years older than the 16 year old girl, the two of them can still date and engage in sexual activity without breaking any laws.","answer_b":"The age of consent is a legal term for the minimum age in which a person can consent to sexual activity. In a sense it sets a standard in which a person cannot agree to sex before a certain age. Then sex, even with a willing participant becomes sexual assault by default or statute.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Though \"A\" is more informative, \"B\" is also not incorrect. The age of consent is different in all states. In Maryland, the age of consent is 16, but the other party for not be more than 4 years old than the 16-year-old (https:\/\/www.peoples-law.org\/age-consent).   There is a law named \"Romeo and Juliet\" which allows couples within a certain amount of years to date someone that is 16 years old (chrome-extension:\/\/efaidnbmnnnibpcajpcglclefindmkaj\/https:\/\/www.flsenate.gov\/PublishedContent\/Session\/2012\/InterimReports\/2012-214cj.pdf)."}
{"question":"why cant america just ban guns feels like it would solve alot of problems","answer_a":"There are a number of reasons why America cannot simply ban guns. First, there is the issue of the Second Amendment of the United States Constitution. The Second Amendment protects the right of Americans to keep and bear arms. This right has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to apply to individuals, and not just to militias. As a result, any attempt to ban guns would likely be unconstitutional.<br \/><br \/>Second, there is the issue of enforcement. Even if guns were banned, there would still be a black market for them. It would be very difficult to enforce a ban on guns, and there would likely be a lot of violence associated with the black market.<br \/><br \/>Third, there is the issue of self-defense. Many people believe that they have a right to defend themselves and their families, and that banning guns would take away that right.<br \/><br \/>Fourth, there is the issue of hunting. Hunting is a popular sport in America, and many people believe that banning guns would take away their ability to hunt.<br \/><br \/>Finally, there is the issue of politics. The gun lobby is very powerful in America, and any attempt to ban guns would likely face a lot of opposition.","answer_b":"For the same reason you can\u2019t ban free speech.  It is a constitutional freedom that was designed to be difficult dismantle.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Option \"A\" was a better answer compared to option \"B\". But both \"A\" and \"B\" are both correct.\n\nOption \"A\" explained in detail the reasons behind why it would the second amendment could not just be simply dismantled. As option \"B\" stated, it is difficult to ratify an amendment. A process has to occur to start the ratification (and honestly, I do not know the process). Also, for the ratification to occur, there has to be overwhelming support from the senate for that to happen. The White House website states, \"An amendment may be proposed by a two-thirds vote of both Houses of Congress, or, if two-thirds of the States request one, by a convention called for that purpose. The amendment must then be ratified by three-fourths of the State legislatures or three-fourths of conventions called in each State for ratification.\" (https:\/\/www.whitehouse.gov\/about-the-white-house\/our-government\/the-constitution\/#:~:text=An%20amendment%20may%20be%20proposed,in%20each%20State%20for%20ratification.).\n"}
{"question":"how can humans survive in the channel tunnel without a pressure suit? But no at that depth in sea? Is this down to the difference in density between air and water or is the air in the channel tunnel pressurised?","answer_a":"The tunnel is only full of air, so going that deep isn't as big of a deal. Water weighs A LOT more, so at that depth there is more weight crushing you.","answer_b":"Did a ctrl+f for pressure on the wikipedia page and found:<newline>> The ventilation system maintains the air pressure in the service tunnel higher than in the rail tunnels, so that in the event of a fire, smoke does not enter the service tunnel from the rail tunnels.<newline>So, yes there is a ventilation system that maintains the air pressure.<newline>> Trains travelling at high speed create piston effect pressure changes that can affect passenger comfort, ventilation systems, tunnel doors, fans and the structure of the trains, and which drag on the trains.[199] Piston relief ducts of 2-metre (7 ft) diameter were chosen to solve the problem, with 4 ducts per kilometre to give close to optimum results.<newline>I found this pretty interesting. They had to install vents because the trains running into the air was causing pressure problems.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question contains false assumptions about the physical properties of the channel and speculates about the weight of air at this depth.\nBoth Answers are relevant to this question, however  Answer A only states obvious considerations (The tunnel is only full of air), while Answer B goes deep into a technical design which is relevant to give a bit of architectural\/technical background to it.\nNeither of the Answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nBoth Answers are easy to follow except for Answer B having copied references from Wikipedia with numbers in squared brackets which causes confusion. \nAnswer A contains relevant information, and Answer B contains a description of how the author got to the Wikipedia page, which is irrelevant information.\nNeither of the answers contains false assumptions or misconceptions."}
{"question":"if theres no gravity in space how do rockets steer\/move? Wouldn't it be hard land perpendicular on the moon? ","answer_a":"They use thrusters, which are tiny \"rocket engines\" (sometimes they just puff gas under pressure) on the sides of the ship.  Gravity actually has little to do with it - it's the lack of air that makes aerodynamic surfaces like ailerons and rudders ineffective.","answer_b":"Rockets are able to steer and move in space because they rely on the force of their engines to propel them in the desired direction. Without gravity, there is nothing to pull them back down to the surface of a planet or moon, so they can continue moving in a straight line indefinitely. This can make landing on a planet or moon tricky, as it can be difficult to judge the correct angle and approach needed to land perpendicular on the surface.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain misconceptions.\nBoth questions consider all aspects, it is that Answer B is slightly better developed and provides a consistent description of the landing process.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nAnswer A is not very well formulated in terms that it uses too simplified an approach to the problem: \"Gravity actually has little to do with it ...\"\nAnswer B is well formulated and easy to follow.\nNeither of the answers contains irrelevant information.\nThere is no factually incorrect information or misconceptions in these two answers.\n\n\n"}
{"question":"why does water spill when first poured from full pitchers\/carafes? I was pouring my coffee today, and when the carafe is full, the coffee has a tendency to spill or dribble down the outside of the carafe. This isn't an issue when the carafe is less full.","answer_a":"Roughly speaking, water doesn't like air, but does like glass (and some other things).<newline>So as you tip things the water clings to the glass so it touches as little air as possible and as much glass as possible.<newline>But once it gets flowing there is enough of a push to break that.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why water spills when first poured from full pitchers or carafes. One reason is that when the pitcher or carafe is full, the weight of the water can cause the spout to open slightly, which allows water to drip or spill out. Another reason is that when the container is full, the water level is higher than the spout, so the water has to travel further to reach the spout, which can cause it to spill or dribble out. Finally, when the container is full, the water is also under more pressure, which can cause it to spill or dribble out if the spout is not opened wide enough.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions, however, it is somewhat poorly worded and unfinished with half of the sentence \"This isn't an issue when t\".\nAnswer A does not consider all aspects of the problem like the leakage out of the spout when the container is full.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nAnswer A is rather poorly formulated when there is: \"Roughly speaking, water doesn't like air, but does like glass (and some other things).\" This is not typical scientific order. What they were trying to say was:  \"the adhesion between water and glass is so strong that it is energetically favorable for a drop of water on the glass to spread out and coat the entire surface. \" This would be a more useful formulation.\nAnswer B is well formulated and easy to follow.\nNeither of the answers contains irrelevant information.\nNeither of the Answers contains factually incorrect information or misconceptions\n\n"}
{"question":"Why when holding a magnifying glass in a certain angle on a sunny day causes things like wood and cotton to burn? ","answer_a":"Sunlight carries with it energy. About a thousand watts per square meter on a good day. A 6-cm magnifying glass takes up about 0.28% of a square meter, so it will be collecting around 2.8 watts of power - that's about a fifth of a small candle. It is concentrated down to a very small area - smaller than a candle flame, and so as far as that small area is concerned, it may as well be held over a flame.","answer_b":"A magnifying glass works by gathering the light from a larger area and focussing it into a smaller area. When using a magnifying glass normally, you're taking the light bouncing off the thing you're looking at and focussing it into your eye-hole.<newline>If you bring a magnifying glass outside on a sunny day, [this happens](https:\/\/i.imgur.com\/sJxraPg.png). All the sunlight (and heat energy) that hits the whole large surface of the magnifying glass gets focused and concentrated to be hitting a MUCH smaller point. So like, if you focus the power onto a spot 1\/100th the size of the glass itself, that spot gets 100x more heat on it than just being in normal sunlight. Also notice you're not creating energy here. The hot spot gets a shadow around it. You're just moving and gathering most of the light that would have hit the circle and redistributing it into a much smaller spot and leaving a shadow around that spot.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers provide valid points, however, Answer B is easier to understand, and it uses a link to an outside scheme which is very helpful.\nThe question does not contain misconceptions.\nBoth answers consider all aspects of the question.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nBoth answers are well formulated, however, Answer A is rather minimalistic, and it uses Maths in a bit \"matter of fact\" way, which does not sink well: \"A 6-cm magnifying glass takes up about 0.28% of a square meter, so it will be collecting around 2.8 watts of power - that's about a fifth of a small candle.\" Bringing the candle into the scope may confuse.\n The information provided by both answers is relevant.\nNeither of the answers contains false assumptions or misconceptions.\n\n"}
{"question":"what causes race cars to sometimes spin out when taking a turn? The only understanding I have is that applying too much throttle can be attributed to this, but how does increasing acceleration lead to a loss of control?","answer_a":"So many things, surface condition, oversteer, understeer, condition of the tyres, cornering speed - bear in mind race cars usually operating on the very edge of grip - with the downforce they provide, so any marginal thing will likely cause it to \u201csnap\u201d and spin","answer_b":"It depends on the type of car why they spun. Front wheel drive cars spin when you close the throttle mid turn. Rear wheel drive cars spin when you go too fast into it or accelerate too soon and all wheel drive cars do both but less often.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions.\nBoth Answers fail to mention the specific aerodynamics of race cars.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nBoth Answers are straight to the point and easy to follow.\nAnswer B starts by stating \"It depends on the type of car why they spun\", but this is an irrelevant question because it is stated at the very beginning that we are dealing with the race car.\nThere is no factually incorrect information provided by both Answers, however, they fail to look deeper at the phenomenon.\nThe thing is that the entire car was designed in order to provide smooth, disturbance-free airflow around the car. This led to the generation of aerodynamic lift on race cars. This reduced the available grip. That might have been sensed by the drivers at the time as a loss of speed on corners and a light feeling on the steering wheel, but aerodynamicists would argue that only drag was an important parameter. http:\/\/racingcardynamics.com\/race-car-aerodynamics-air-lap-times"}
{"question":"how does a nuclear reactor and nuclear energy work? How does a nuclear reactor and nuclear energy work?","answer_a":"A nuclear reactor uses radioactive materials as their fuel source. A chain reaction is started where neutrons slam into the other atoms which in turn also shoot off neutrons. But these neutrons are flying away at a high rate of speed, and they need to be slowed down a bit to make them more likely to hit another atom; this is where the moderator comes in. There are a few different things that can do this function, even just water.<newline>To control the reaction so they can make it happen more slowly over time instead of releasing all that insane energy at once, things such as control rods (which instead absorb neutrons instead of just slowing them down) are also put in the reactor.<newline>All this neutron whizzing about breaking other atoms like a cue ball on a pool table creates heat, crazy amounts of heat. This is captured via what is called the primary loop, which is water that is being circulated through the reactor both to help keep it cool and to collect that heat. This then goes to an exchanger where the primary water heats up secondary water (you don't want the primary water which is being exposed to neutron radiation to be outside the containment), and this secondary water gets turned into steam. This is what actually drives the steam turbines.<newline>Tldr: Nuclear reactions are atoms losing pieces that bump into other atoms and make them break up too, this makes shitloads of heat. The heat is collected and used for running a steam turbine.","answer_b":"A nuclear reactor is a device used to initiate and control a nuclear chain reaction. Nuclear reactors are used to generate electricity and to produce plutonium for nuclear weapons. <newline><newline>Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission to generate electricity. In a typical nuclear power plant, uranium fuel is enriched to about 3-5% U-235 and then formed into pellets. These pellets are then placed in fuel rods, which are bundled together to form a fuel assembly. <newline><newline>The fuel assembly is placed in the reactor core, where the nuclear fission reaction takes place. The fission reaction releases heat, which is used to generate steam. The steam turns turbines, which generate electricity. <newline><newline>Nuclear reactors are closely regulated to ensure the safety of the public and the environment. Nuclear power plants must meet strict safety and security regulations.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This is hard to choose between these 2 answers because they both give reasonable answers, but Answer A is too lengthy and uses too much non-scientific jargon, like \"crazy amounts of heat\", \"shitloads of heat\" etc, and then does not evaluate on why the heat\/steam is needed (to produce electricity. Still, there are some good parts of Answer A, like \nThe question does not contain misconceptions or false assumptions.\nQuestion A fails to develop further than \"The heat is collected and used for running a steam turbine.\" The turbine in fact is used to generate electricity.\nThere is no fatal grammatic mistake in either of the Answers, however, the language and style Answer A is using is far from scientific standards (shitloads of heat, etc).\nBoth answers are well formulated and easy to follow, though Answer A is too long to go through it without a problem.\nAnswer A contains loads of unnecessary words and irrelevant information like description of moderator function.\nBoth answers provide correct information.\n"}
{"question":"Why do heavy objects fall at the same speed as light ones? Shouldn't gravity make objects which mass is greater attract each other more and therefore touch each other more quickly? Or maybe the mass of the Earth is so big that the difference between two objects in perspective is negligible, especially on the very short distance between them and the soil? Not sure... could you explain?","answer_a":"They do attract each other more, heavy objects fall with a greater force than light objects they just fall at the same velocity. The impact of a heavy object when it hits the ground is far greater, but force = mass times acceleration so the greater mass is balanced out by the greater force.","answer_b":"Physics. Terminal velocity is a thing that matters a lot more than it seems. Also weight\/mass while related, are two separate factors out of many factors that affect speed of falling objects. I\u2019m definitely no physics person, but I believe that a heavier object needs more time to get to terminal velocity even though with enough time it will ultimately have a greater pull on it due to being heavier. A smaller object will reach terminal velocity more quickly, but it won\u2019t go as fast. These two things exist on a parabola where there\u2019s a lot of overlap because there\u2019s often not a large enough free fall. Example of physics, an average sized human\u2019s free fall terminal velocity is about 85-90mph, but a streamlined human can get to well over 100, and a human wearing specific clothing\/attire can get even faster in a fall. That\u2019s a variance of 60-70mph ultimately in an object that\u2019s the same mass\/size\/relatively same shape just oriented differently or otherwise affecting drag.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was difficult to pick a better Answer here because while Answer A is too short and does not consider all aspects, Answer B is overly long, poorly structured, and lists some irrelevant information.\nThe question does contain false assumption in terms that heavy objects and light objects will reach the ground at the same time, only if \"all things\" are  equal. But usually there are other forces acting on a falling object that does not depend on its mass. For example, an object\u2019s shape can be important, especially if it enables the air to create drag. A flat sheet of paper will take a longer time to reach the ground than a compact stone since it pushes through the air beneath it with greater difficulty.\nBoth Answers fail to discuss this misconception explicitly though they comment on a \"greater pull\".\nAnswer A does not consider all aspects of the problem as it does not discuss explicitly the velocity of two falling bodies, heavy and light.\nNeither of the questions contains fatal grammar mistakes.\n Neither of the answers is well formulated or easy to follow. Answer A falls short of providing a full explanation, while answer B brings in lots of topics, like air drug, parabola, the author not being a physicist, etc.\nAnswer A contains relevant information, though not enough of it, while Answer B provides plenty of irrelevant information such as \"These two things exist on a parabola where there\u2019s a lot of overlap because there\u2019s often not a large enough free fall. \", \" I am definitely not a Physics person\", etc.\nBoth Answer do not contain misconceptions.\n"}
{"question":"If the JWST will observe photons of light coming from the creation of the universe, how are we already so far away from the place where it happened? ","answer_a":"This question is based on a common misconception. The Big Bang didn't happen in a specific location, it happened **everywhere**. The idea though is that all *locations* were much closer together in the early universe so all places had basically no distance from each other. As the universe expanded more distance rapidly came into existence; things weren't flying apart moving *through* space, the *space itself* was getting more distant from other locations.<newline>The universe even when very close and dense was still likely infinite in extent.","answer_b":"The JWST will observe photons of light coming from the creation of the universe, but we are already far away from the place where it happened. The universe is expanding, and the further away something is from us, the faster it is moving away from us. So, the photons that the JWST will observe are coming from a time when the universe was much smaller and denser than it is now.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was difficult to decide which answer is better because they are very similar. However, Answer A is better structured and points out the misconception of the question.\nThe question contains misconception about the Big Band location on other events in the Universe \"localized\", though the Universe expanded, hence those events are \"everywhere\".\nAnswer A considers all aspects, answer B still discuss events in the universe in terms of their distance, like \"but we are already far away from the place where it happened\", which is incorrect in this context.\nNeither A nor B contains fatal grammar mistakes that make the answer hard to understand.\nBoth answers are well formulated and easy to follow.\nBoth answers contain relevant information.\nAnswer B contains factually incorrect information \" but we are already far away from the place where it happened.\", because the point of the Big Bang cannot be localized in the Universe known to us as it was expanding and the \"origin\" is everywhere.\n\n"}
{"question":"how does a speaker vibrate at multiple frequencies simultaneously to deliver sounds to our ears? I'll try and explain what I mean.. say a song is playing - how do the vocals, drums, guitars etc which all have different frequencies (aka a plate is moving back &amp; forth at a rate to deliver these sound waves) play at the same time? Surely the plate can't vibrate to deliver two or more frequencies at once?","answer_a":"This has been asked many times and the answer is they don\u2019t. If you listen to the song being played live on purely acoustic instruments even though they are being played separately and emitting their own frequencies, what you hear (and by extension, what a microphone captures) at any given time is just ONE frequency that\u2019s the \u201csum\u201d of all the others combined. A speaker is just a reverse microphone.","answer_b":"Imagine an ocean with a consistent wave. It flows up and down, with equal distance between the two waves at any time.<newline>Now imagine I push a larger, shorter wave into this ocean. The two waves will collide, resulting in some new wave pattern. This new wave pattern is a combination of those two waves.<newline>Speakers work similarly. If I combine two soundwaves, I get a new combination wave that sounds different.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to choose between these two answers because they both are not wrong and give essentially the same explanation. I go with answer B because I like the analogy with the ocean waves, and due to how visual the explanation is it is easier to understand in my opinion.\nThe question contains a false assumption of different frequencies being reproduced separately. Both answers A and B address this.\nBoth Answers A and B consider all aspects of the question.\nThere are no fatal grammar mistakes in either of the Answers, however, it is a bit unfortunate choice of words in B. The waves COMBINE rather than COLLIDE.\nBoth Answers are well formulated and easy to follow.\nAnswer A contains an irrelevant outburst \"This has been asked many times and the answer is they don\u2019t.\" \nBoth answers A and B do not contain false assumptions and misconceptions.\n"}
{"question":"How the bodies\/remains from 9\/11 couldn't be found\/are \"just gone\" from a building collapse? ","answer_a":"The most optimal range of a crematorium oven is 1400-1800 degrees Fahrenheit. Temperatures at ground zero were as high as 1377. So, while not optimal, it can still turn a body into dust over weeks (the fires burned for 100 days).","answer_b":"There are a number of potential explanations for why the bodies\/remains from 9\/11 couldn't be found\/are \"just gone\" from a building collapse. One possibility is that the bodies were completely incinerated in the intense heat of the collapse. Another possibility is that the bodies were pulverized by the force of the collapse. Finally, it is also possible that the bodies were buried beneath the rubble and simply couldn't be recovered.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions.\nAnswer A only provides one answer (extremely high temperatures) while Answer B provides three correct explanations which are extremely high temperatures, pulverization (can be a local explosion or as they mentioned, collapse force), and mechanical problems of recovering from under the rubble, which is correct. Answer A, however, provides some numerical data on temperature which adds credibility to the explanation.\nNeither of the Answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nBoth answers are well formulated and easy to follow.\nNeither of the answers contains irrelevant information.\nNo misconceptions in either of the Answers.\n"}
{"question":"If light has no mass, why does it bend in the presence of gravity? ","answer_a":"Light doesn\u2019t have mass in the conventional sense. Einstein theorized, essentially, that there can be no energy without mass. If E= 0, and c^2 is a constant, then m= 0. If m=0, then there is no energy. Light IS energy.<newline>So! Light ACTS like it has mass while in motion, and has no mass when at a halt. The answer you\u2019re looking for is: \ud83e\udd37\u200d\u2642\ufe0f","answer_b":"Light travels in space. Gravity warps space, while light just keeps following wherever it goes. Although gravity doesn't affect photons, it does affect the surface upon which they move.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I have to choose Answer B because it provides the generally accepted explanation in simpler terms. Essentially it is the same concept by Einstein that is mentioned by Answer A, but it is better stated and explained.\nThe question does not contain false assumptions.\nBoth answers consider all aspects of the question.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes. \nAnswer B is better formulated than Answer A. It does not contain mathematical expressions in the text and provides factual information.\nAnswer A makes an impression of a difficult scientific concept.\nBoth answers contain relevant information.\nNeither of the Answers provides false assumptions or misconception.\n\n"}
{"question":"If opposite poles attract, why does the North side of a compass point north instead of south? ","answer_a":"The reason that the north side of a compass points north instead of south is because opposite poles attract each other. The north pole of the compass is attracted to the south pole of the earth, and vice versa. This interaction between the poles is what causes the compass needle to point in a particular direction.","answer_b":"The opposite electrical charges attract. There's nothing that actually matters about how we label them as North and South. For a compass, we've made it so the side that points to the magnetic north pole is labeled as North.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions. \nAnswer A though gives \"the gist of it\", i.e. that the North of compass actually is attracted to the South of Earth, but does not say that this is the actual South of Earth that we call North. The answer B though essentially says the truth, i.e., we could \"color\" our compass in a way we need to to avoid possible confusion, gives it all way around, because we call Earth's South as \"North\", not the compass' South.\nThere are no fatal grammar mistakes in either of the Answers.\nBoth answers are well formulated and easy to follow. \nBoth answers contain relevant information.\nAnswer A though correct, does not contain full information, and Answer B provides incorrect information on what is actually called \"North\". \n\nOne magnet\u2019s north pole is attracted to another magnet\u2019s south pole because opposites attract. Therefore, Earth\u2019s south magnetic pole is actually up north, which may be surprising. The planet\u2019s south pole is near its geographic north, while the planet\u2019s north pole is near the planet\u2019s geographic south. As a result, the north pole in a compass points north because this is where Earth\u2019s south magnetic pole is located. source - https:\/\/101gis.com\/why-does-a-compass-point-north\/."}
{"question":"Why can\u2019t we just build more nuclear power stations to reduce carbon emissions? ","answer_a":"There are several reasons why we can't just build more nuclear power stations to reduce carbon emissions. First, nuclear power is expensive to build and maintain. Second, nuclear power plants produce radioactive waste that is difficult to dispose of safely. Finally, nuclear power plants can be potential targets for terrorist attacks.","answer_b":"Easy enough to do.  Nuclear has an image problem, though.  People don't like them and don't want them around, so permitting is a nightmare.  California just shut down its last nuclear plant, in fact.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain false assumptions.\nAnswer A considers potential explanations in detail, however, it fails to mention the negative public outlook and potential legal issues. Answer B only mentions negative opinions and legal issues, but does not explore the underlying reasons. I am not 100% happy with either of the answers. They should be combined, also it would be useful to reflect on the known disasters that occurred at the Nuclear power plants, such as Chernobyl\nNeither Answer contains fatal grammar errors.\nAnswer A is well formulated and easy to follow, answer B is too loose in style, with not great grammar, though still easy to follow.\nBoth answers contain relevant information. Neither of the Answers contains false assumptions. The information, though correct, lacks some facts, for example https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Chernobyl_disaster \n"}
{"question":"If atoms never touch each other then how does sound travel between them? There can\u2019t be sounds in space because of the vacuum (no matter). How does sound travel between atoms if they never touch each other? Isn\u2019t there nothing in between the atoms?","answer_a":"There are *forces* between atoms. However it\u2019s extremely difficult to intuitively grasp or explain these forces because they don\u2019t resemble anything else with which we are familiar. <newline>Here\u2019s Nobel Prize-winning physicist Richard Feynman explaining why you can\u2019t really explain such forces to a five year old, or even to an intelligent adult who is not a physicist:<newline>https:\/\/youtu.be\/MO0r930Sn_8","answer_b":"They do push against each other without touching. Like how the same poles of two magnets push against each other without touching. Does that help?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answers are short of the relevant definition of the nature of sound waves.\nAnswer A only mentions that \"there are forces\" and then cuts it short by saying that it is virtually impossible to explain this to 5 year old. Answer B\n compares atoms with magnets which is an incorrect comparison. \nThe question does not contain false assumptions.\nBoth Answers do not mention the fact that sound is elastic mechanical waves, or the propagation of mechanical vibrations in an elastic medium (air, liquids, solids). \nThere are no fatal grammar mistakes in both  Answers.\nBoth Answers are poorly formulated - Answer A quotes an irrelevant video and lists the name of World renown physicist to add some credibility. Answer B has a question in the end \"Does that help?\" \nAnswer A contains plenty of irrelevant information, like a reference to Richard Feynmann, a link to an irrelevant video, and statements that \" it\u2019s extremely difficult to intuitively grasp or explain these forces because they don\u2019t resemble anything else with which we are familiar\".\nAnswer B contains irrelevant question in the end.\n\nAnswer A simply does not provide any useful information, Answer B states \"They do push against each other without touching. Like how the same poles of two magnets push against each other without touching. \" - but in fact, it is electromagnetic interaction between atoms and molecules that \"bound\" particles to each other and propagates displacement of particles away from the source.\nWhen we hit the table with a spoon, the particles of the table and the spoon itself are displaced, but these particles are bound to others (e\/m interaction of atoms), so neighboring atoms and molecules also shift with some delay due to inertia. \nWhen this sound wave (vibrations of air particles) reaches our ears, the air particles will transmit vibrations to the particles of the eardrum, etc."}
{"question":"Where is the universe expanding to? I know this has already been asked, but how \/where is it expanding? If the end of the universe is the end of everything, then how is it getting bigger? What is the area outside of the universe that is being taken over as the universe expands?","answer_a":"There is no agreed-upon answer to this question since there is no agreed-upon model of the universe. Some scientists believe that the universe is infinite and so it is not expanding into anything, while others believe that it is expanding into a higher dimensional space. Some scientists also believe that the universe will eventually stop expanding and start contracting again. There is no definitive answer to this question since there is no definitive model of the universe.","answer_b":"Nothing.   <newline>Because if there was something, it would be part of the universe.   <newline>When they say the universe is expanding, they mean that everything is getting further apart from each other everywhere. Not that there's a not-universe the universe is displacing.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers give believable and relevant explanations, but Answer A is more structured (like providing different models and conclusions from them) so it sounds more informative.\nThe question does not contain false assumptions.\nBoth answers consider all known aspects of the problem, besides the lack of references which would be useful in Answer A especially.\nThere are no fatal grammar mistakes in both answers.\nBoth Answers are well formulated and easy to follow, though Answer A is somewhat better in this respect, and Answer B sounds too categorical like \"Nothing\".\nBoth answers contain relevant information.\nNeither of the Answers contains misconceptions or factually incorrect information."}
{"question":"How is energy conserved when two forces counteract? If there are 2 forces on the same object, that counteract, the object doesn't move.<br \/>But there was energy released to create these forces. If these forces don't cause anything to move, doesn't it mean that that energy was destroyed?","answer_a":"Applying perfectly opposite forces in a perfectly static and rigid world - doesn't actually expend any energy. The act of applying a force doesn't expend energy - its the act of applying a force over a distance which does.<newline>In the real world, since everything is elastic, the thing you are compressing\/stretching with your forces, plus the structure that the forces are reacting against will act like stiff springs - and this is where the energy gets stored.<newline>For example press your hands together in front of your chest. As you press:<newline>* Some energy gets stored into the squishing of your palms<newline>* Some energy gets stored in the compression of the bones in your forearms<newline>* Some energy gets stored in the tension of your upper arms and the bones across your shoulders<newline>The chances are some energy will be lost to heat, since flesh is unlikely to be a particularly efficient elastic. <newline>Since you don't apply the force over much distance, very little energy is stored. If you put a spring between your hands, now you apply the force over more distance and more energy is stored (which is apparent when you let the spring go!)","answer_b":"Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one type to another. In this case, the energy was converted from potential energy to kinetic energy and then back to potential energy. The object didn't move, so the kinetic energy was quickly converted back to potential energy.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain a false assumption, however it asks something with an obvious answer (like energy cannot be destroyed).\nAnswer A reflects on pretty much all concepts but it might be easier if they mentioned Work which is Force multiplied by the distance the body was moved by this force. At the higher level, the work is zero, but as this answer rightly states, at a smaller scale the body parts move\/get squished, etc. Answer B though states that the object did not move (hence the force does not produce work), does not explore it.\nNo fatal grammar errors in both answers.\nAnswer A states in a rather confusing way: \"Since you don't apply the force over much distance, very little energy is stored.\" It would be better to say that \"the energy is changed very little\". Otherwise, Answer A is well formulated, though slightly too long. Answer B is well formulated and easy to follow.\nAnswer A provides relevant information, but some discussions might be unnecessarily lengthy, like going into human anatomy to explain how and where the energy is changed. Answer B is relevant.\nAnswer A provides actual information, and  Answer B provides misconception about potential energy changing into kinetic energy for a very short time, though it likely is various potential and thermal energy changes. The object must actually be moving for us to be able to talk about kinetic energy.\n\n\n\n"}
{"question":"Why can\u2019t we dispose of nuclear waste by shooting it into deep space? ","answer_a":"The main reason why we can't dispose of nuclear waste by shooting it into deep space is because it would be incredibly expensive to do so. Additionally, there is no guarantee that the waste would not eventually come back to Earth, potentially causing harm to our planet and its inhabitants.","answer_b":"Cost. Currently to get mass into low earth orbit it costs many thousands of dollars per kg. We don't want to fill low earth orbit with waste so really we need it on at least an earth escape trajectory, and ideally a sun escape. This ramps up the cost even more. Storing nuclear waste is a hassle, but it isn't as expensive or dangerous as launching it into space.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was somewhat difficult to decide between those 2 as both answers provide the correct answer and do not have any misconceptions, however, answer B gives more relevant details, so I had to go with it.\nThe question does not contain false assumptions.\nAnswer A fells a bit short without providing information on the escape velocity (for Earth and Sun). Answer B lists all aspects.\nNeither of the answers has fatal grammar errors.\nBoth of the answers are very easy to follow.\nBoth answers contain relevant information.\nNone of the answers contain any factually incorrect information or misconceptions."}
{"question":"what theories are out there about what came before the Big Bang? ","answer_a":"The current model for what happened before the big bang is known as cosmic inflation.<newline>The basic idea is that the Big Bang on its own explains many of the observations made my scientists regarding the structure of the universe. However, what is interesting is that there are several observations that the Big Bang *cannot* explain, such as:<newline>\\- why was the universe \"born\" perfectly flat?<newline>\\- why is the universe the same temperature (up to over 99% accuracy) in all directions when there hasn't been enough time for the temperature of the universe to \"even out\" all the way?<newline>\\- why aren't there various high-energy relics (like magnetic monopoles - a magnet that's only North or South, but *not both*) when the Standard Model (the current frame work of the smallest particles in physics) predicted that such relics should exist as a result of the insanely high energy of the Big Bang?<newline>\\- why did the universe begin with such low entropy (which is a measure of \"disorder\" in a system)? Especially considering the fact that entropy always increases in closed systems?<newline>After the Big Bang model became accepted in the first half of the 1900's, scientists have struggled to answer these questions above according to the framework of the Big Bang.<newline>However, in the '70s and '80s a scientist named Alan Guth came up with a model explains everything the Big Bang did, *and* also explains the unsolved observations not accounted by the Big Bang. This model is known as cosmic inflation, and put simply it is the idea that the energy in the first moments of universe wasn't in particles or radiation, but in the fabric of space itself. So what happened *before* the Big Bang is that the fabric of space itself began to exponentially inflate to an unimaginable degree, and we call the \"Big Bang\" is actually the end of this inflationary period.<newline>So then that begs the question: what happened before the inflationary period? Sadly, no one knows. It is possible that some kind of singularity existed before inflation. It is also possible that inflation never stopped, which would imply the existence of a multiverse. Or it could be that inflations happen cyclically, which implies an eternal universe.<newline>What's really interesting here is that the scientists who figured out and basically proved that inflation came first did this forty years ago. So anyone who still tries to argue that the Big Bang was the first event in the universe is at least forty years outdated.","answer_b":"Tesla said there is a primordial soup and we are being churned in it - that would be the big bang, the start of the churn, so the soup would be there but motionless, or the possibility of all motion, however you want to look at it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain misconception. \nAnswer B does not consider all aspects of the answer and only speaks about 1 theory shortly. Answer A is bound with cosmic inflation and could reflect on a few more concepts, but considering how prolific this explanation, it can be forgiven.\nAnswer A is reasonably formulated though slightly too long. Answer B is not well formulated because it is philosophical rather than p[hysical.\nBoth answers contain relevant information.\n Both answers touch on the correct information and concepts. However, Answer B cuts short and only mentions an outdated concept by Tesla."}
{"question":"Since force is related to a change in momentum and not necessarily just to a change in velocity, what would be an example where only the mass of a body changes but not its velocity when subjected to a force? ","answer_a":"Momentum is something that exists in mass. If you apply a force, it inherently *must* change an object's velocity (however slightly) and does not change its mass.<newline>To increase the momentum of an object, you must decrease the momentum of another object, as momentum is a conserved quantity. Note that momentum is a vector, and so a \"decrease\" could just as well mean an increase in the opposite direction. The force 'moves' momentum between the two objects.<newline>The force could, instead, move mass between the two objects, but the scenario is a bit odd, since the new mass isn't necessarily the same object but simply travels alongside the object.<newline>For example, imagine a very fast aircraft flying over enemy territory. So fast that it keeps pace with bullets. The enemy fires upon the aircraft, but the bullets can only match speeds with it and will not damage it. The bullets are now traveling with the aircraft, and with some mid-flight gluing they could become a part of it. In this case, the force of firing the bullet is pumping mass to the object without changing its velocity.","answer_b":"My first thought was particle accelerators where the particles are close to the universal speed limit and will therefore not go any faster no matter how much acceleration you give them but will instead increase in mass. However \/u\/LordSpazpatty is completely right with the hovering rocket example as well as the mass is reduced due to fuel being burned by the engines requiring less force to keep the same acceleration.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"The question does not contain misconception. \nBoth answers do not contain fatal grammar mistakes.\nAnswer B is reasonably formulated and easy to follow, Answer A suggests to imagine some complex situation (plane and bullets) and is not easy to follow.\nThough answer A stays within the relevant concept, since it is immediately set to incorrect path, it discusses example that is hardly real (bullets and plane) and dismisses situation with changed mass. Answer B contains irrelevant reference to a name of a user.\nAnswer A contains false assumption like \"momentum is something that exists in mass\". Answer A states that force has to change velocity which is not the case for the rocket for example since it is losing mass. It is also not the case when a moving body splits in two parts, and one of the parts continue moving with the same velocity (but obviously has a different mass now).Answer B provides the correct examples though I can think about another suitable example which is easier to understand. \n"}
{"question":"Where do magnets get their energy to repel other magnets from? Does it last forever? ","answer_a":"Magnetism is like gravity. Lift a ball off the ground, and you're putting in energy. Push two magnets together, and you're putting in energy. Let go, and the energy is released.<newline>Magnetism doesn't last forever, either. It's a result of the poles being aligned. Heat will shake them out of alignment.","answer_b":"A more poetic non-answer is: When I sing, where does the melody come from?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to choose between the Answers because this was a non-sensical question, so Answer B picked it and gave an ironic answer, while Answer A completely ignored the misconception of the question and provided a list of facts from Magnetism.\nThe question does contain a false assumption about magnets having the energy to repel each other, while magnetism is a force, and Answer B hints at it. Answer A ignores misconceptions and provides facts.\nNeither Answer considers all aspects asked in the question. The question is not answered in terms that the answers do not point directly at the misconception.\nNeither of the answers contains fatal grammar mistakes.\nNeither of the questions is well formulated because Answer B is cryptic suggesting the reader think for themselves, and Answer A just puts together a few facts about magnetism. They both are relatively easy to follow.\nAnswer B does not contain relevant information, Answer A contains relevant information in the domain of magnetism.\nNeither of the answers contains incorrect information of misconception.\n\n"}
{"question":"If under anesthesia do you get your sleep needed for the day?<br \/>","answer_a":"No. The unconsciousness induced by both IV anesthetics and inhaled anesthetics is very different from restorative sleep. In fact, patients in ICUs who are sedated for long periods of time with some of the same medications they use in anesthesia get delirium from both a lack of sleep and a lack of proper awake time. <br \/>This is also true for prescription benzodiazepines like Ativan (lorazepam) and Xanax (alprazolam) which are often prescribed for insomnia but do not produce true sleep. <br \/>There is an IV sedative called Dexmedetomodine (precedex) that produces an unconsciousness more similar to sleep and has been shown to reduce the risk of ICU delirium vs more common medications like propofol. It is also used as an adjunct in anesthetic practice. But it is not nearly as prominent as propofol or inhaled anesthetics for a few reasons. First, it takes longer to work so after a dose you have to wait 15-30min for it to take effect (propofol is within a minute or so) and it lasts longer once it is stopped. Additionally, up until recently it was on patent and quite expensive. The patent recently expired and it is seeing increased use but I doubt it will ever become as popular as propofol.  <br \/>EDIT: Precedex also isn't a full anesthetic in standard practice so for surgery under general anesthesia it still needs to be used with another medicine like propofol or anesthesia gas.  Thanks u\/bluejay54 for the reminder.  <br \/>True ELI5: Sleep = charging your phone on airplane mode. Anesthesia = turning your phone off but not charging it. credit to u\/greatpiginthesty<br \/>I am an ICU RN and am starting anesthesia training soon.","answer_b":"There is no clear consensus on whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day. Some studies suggest that people under anesthesia do get some sleep, but it is not clear how deep or restful this sleep is. Other studies suggest that people under anesthesia do not get any meaningful sleep at all. Therefore, it is difficult to say definitively whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer A is better option because it has proper explanation of relevant information which is being asked in the question.\nWhile option B does not contain complete and correct information needed for the answer to this question. Answer is not clear and not even fully explained in option B.\nIn answer A, relevant detail of the answer is explained using the example of equating sleep to charging the phone and anesthesia to turning it off but not charging which clear the idea about this concept. Also, it contains some unnecessary points like mentioning of certain drugs. But overall, answer A is better choice for this question. "}
{"question":"Why do people tell a dying person to stay awake, or to stay with them?<br \/>I see this in a lot of films and series; a person has a shotwound or some other fatal injury and the one helping them tells him\/her to \"stay with them\" or to \"don't fall asleep.\" Why do they say that? Is it just something that happens in movies? Or does it have a serious reason?<br \/>I asked my brother this question and he said that they say that to prevent people going into shock, but he answered quite unsure. And if this is the answer, why would we prevent people from going into shock. Your body goes into shock to stay alive longer, so wouldn't it be a good thing? <br \/>I couldn't find anything on google, but maybe that's just because I'm bad at finding things on google. Also, english isn't my first language, so excuse me if there are any spelling or grammar errors.","answer_a":"You're referring to somone who is dying from a grievous injury or overdose, and not of natural causes. <br \/>When alert the pituitary gland in the brain produces ACTH, vassopressin and cortisol, especially when one knows one is in danger. ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce adrenaline,  and norepinephrine.<br \/>Epinephrine, norepinephrine, vasopressin, and cortisol all act to contract blood vessels and raise blood pressure.  The first two raise heart rate and increse breathing rate. Cortisol releases glucose from the liver. <br \/>This can all reduce blood loss from an injury. It can also prevent *shock* which is a catastrophic drop in blood pressure that can be difficult to reverse once it sets in. Untreated shock typically results in loss of oxygen to the brain resulting in brain injury and rapid death.<br \/>In the case of a drug overdose or alcohol poisoning this is important as it keeps the victim breathing.","answer_b":"It\u2019s for dramatic effect. <br \/>If you were fatally wounded to the point of losing enough blood that you could go into shock and lose consciousness, you\u2019re beyond the point of your nervous system being able to keep your blood pressure high enough to power your brain.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to decide which is better option because both the answers are not up to the mark to clear the concept. Still, answer A seems better option as it describes the process in detail and mentioning  some harmones that involves in the process.\nAnswer A contains some incorrect information as well; like ''ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce adrenaline, and norepinephrine.'' ACTH stimulates cortisol production not adrenaline or norepinephrine.\nAlso, Answer B contains some unauthentic information like ''If you were fatally wounded to the point of losing enough blood that you could go into shock and lose consciousness, you\u2019re beyond the point of your nervous system being able to keep your blood pressure high enough to power your brain.'' Because such shocks are curable.\nSo, answer A is better choice because it is more comprehensive.\n "}
{"question":"Why do so many youth get their tonsils removed?<br \/>","answer_a":"For quite some time it was believed that they were useless leftovers from the past that we don\u2019t need anymore, vestigial organ. If they got infected it was just easier to remove them and not deal with repeat infections. Now we know that they are not a vestigial organ and are not useless. Since we know this now they try to leave them in and just deal with infections, however sometimes they do still need to come out for reasons. It won\u2019t majorly affect your life not having them, as millions of people have survived without them just fine. But they do have a use in our bodies and if they can be left in they should be.","answer_b":"Worth noting that it varies wildly according to where you are. The extremes are from 1.9\/100,000 to 11.8\/100,000 <br \/>It was very common when I was a kid in the 60s - more than a few sore throats in a year and they wanted to take them out. My parents resisted - and eventually it settled down anyway.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better choice as it is well formulated, comprehensive and easy to follow. While answer B contains irrelevant statement ''It was very common when I was a kid in the 60s - more than a few sore throats in a year and they wanted to take them out. My parents resisted - and eventually it settled down anyway.'' This statement is based on personal experience of the writer and has nothing to do with the answer.\nTonsils may become enlarged after frequent or persistent infections, or they may be naturally large. A tonsillectomy may be used to treat the following problems caused or complicated by enlarged tonsil: difficulty breathing and disrupted breathing during sleep.\nSo, Answer A is better choice.\n"}
{"question":"Why is it so important for humans to have a balanced nutrition but not for animals?<br \/>Most animals have a fairly simple diet, carnivores eat only meat their whole life, cows eat exclusively grass etc. So why are human bodies so picky and need a balance of protein, fat, carbs etc from different sources to perform well?","answer_a":"Your question includes a few common misconceptions, one that's been addressed already.<br \/>Humans need a balanced diet, but that doesn't necessarily imply a vast array of food types. That simply means the nutritional value of our food has to cover our needs. <br \/>It doesn't have to be varied. You can very well thrive by eating the same handful of things every day.","answer_b":"The human body is much more complex than the bodies of most animals. Humans need a balance of nutrients in order to function properly. Protein, fat, and carbohydrates are all essential nutrients that the body needs in order to function.<br \/><br \/>Animals generally have a simpler diet than humans. For example, carnivores only eat meat, while cows only eat grass. However, the human body is much more complex and needs a variety of different nutrients to function properly. A balanced diet is essential for humans in order to maintain good health.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, both the answers equally need some better information to be added to make the answer well structured and easy to follow for the reader. Answer B contains some incorrect information regarding the humans being more complex than animals and repeating same points twice. though it contain a correct statement ''Humans need a balance of nutrients in order to function properly. Protein, fat, and carbohydrates are all essential nutrients that the body needs in order to function.'' yet it is not enough to clear the concept being asked in the question.\nAccording to research, animals have evolved to survive on their specific diets by consuming the organs of their prey which contain vital nutrients. However, humans have a longer lifespan than animals and want to lead an active, happy life, so consuming a balanced diet is necessary. (scienceabc)\nSuch information should be included in the answer."}
{"question":"why can some animals go for months without eating but humans need to eat within a couple of days?<br \/>","answer_a":"We can. [A man who weighed 456 lbs. was able to go 382 days with no food at all](https:\/\/www.sciencealert.com\/the-true-story-of-a-man-who-survived-without-any-food-for-382-days). Just like a hibernating bear, we can live an extended amount of time just on fat stores alone.","answer_b":"Humans don't need to eat within a couple of days--even without vitamin supplements you can survive a good couple of months without food. They won't be \\*pleasant\\* months by any means, but you'll survive. Water, on the other hand, is critical. Three days without that and you're almost certainly pushing up daisies.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, both the answers are not complete and do not explain the scientific facts behind the survival of some animals without food and inability of humans to survive in case of starvation.\nAccording to answer B, humans can survive couple of months without food and supplements which is not correct. Because vitamins are essential for human body to survive. And it does not provide any information about the survival of some animals which have the ability to store energy for weeks so only need to eat food once in a while or when food is available. For example, snakes or some animals have the ability to slow their metabolism and sleep while waiting until the weather changes like bears and other mammals.\nNeither of the answers explain such facts."}
{"question":"Why do people go bald on the top of their head and still have some on the sides and not vice-versa?<br \/>","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why people go bald on the top of their head and still have some hair on the sides. One reason is that the hair follicles on the top of the head are more sensitive to a hormone called dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is a byproduct of testosterone and is found in both men and women. When DHT levels are high, it can cause the hair follicles on the top of the head to miniaturize, which leads to hair loss. Another reason is that the hair on the sides and back of the head is not as exposed to the sun and other environmental factors, which can damage the hair and lead to hair loss.","answer_b":"Seems unsettled but here\u2019s a theory:<br \/>\u201cThe most recent hypothesis suggests that the hair loss process begins during puberty, when growth of the skull and the muscles in the forehead and neck increases the tension in a tight band of tissue stretching over the top of the head. The more DHT (a type of testosterone) there is, the more these muscles contract, which causes inflammation and brings in more DHT. Over time, the DHT thickens the band of tissue, restricting the supply of blood and nutrients to the hair follicles above it. The follicles on top of the head get smaller and eventually disappear, while those on the sides of the head remain largely unaffected.\u201d<br \/>Source<br \/>https:\/\/www.sciencefocus.com\/the-human-body\/why-do-men-go-bald-from-the-top-of-their-heads\/","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to decide which is the better option but I believe answer A is better choice as it describes both the harmonal and environmental causes behind the baldness of top.\n And Answer B only focuses on one theory which might not be 100 percent accurate. Because baldness is the topic which is still under debate and it is caused by many reasons which cannot be explained by a single theory.\nAccording to research, baldness is due to genes. In 95 percent cases, balding is due to androgenetic alopecia, more commonly known as male pattern baldness, which is hereditary condition. It can affect men of all ages, and may even start before the age of 21. (Healthline)\nSo, answer A is better choice."}
{"question":"Why does darkness in a dark room feel different than the darkness when you close your eyes?<br \/>","answer_a":"Your eyelids are not very good at blocking light. Their main job is to protect and moisturise the eyes, not prevent you seeing things, that's just a useful bonus. After all, we evolved in a world where there was very little artificial light. At night, it would be pitch black - there'd be no extra light for your eyes to block as you're trying to sleep anyway. If you pay attention next time you close your eyes in a bright environment, you'll notice that what you're seeing isn't black, it's a red glow. This is the light passing through your blood-filled eyelid skin.","answer_b":"In my experience, this comes from the fact that in one situation you do not control the darkness while the other is you in control of your shutters.<br \/>Maybe someone else can dive further into this.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is far better choice as it has accurate and scientific information relevant to the question. While answer B has irrelevant  information by mentioning his personal experience of controlling the darkness which is totally over simplified statement. Because this statement has nothing to do with the scientific facts behind the concept being asked in the question.\nAnswer A has all those biological facts relevant to the eyelids which does not totally control the passage of light and it seems less darker when you close your eyes as compared to the darkness which is caused by the absence of light.\nAs the answer A is more factually well formulated and easy to follow, so it is better choice for this question."}
{"question":"How are deep sea animals not more resilient at the surface?<br \/>This might sound like a dumb question but I promise I'm serious. I was watching a video on the depth of the ocean and it got me curious how deep sea creatures don't immediately squash under all that pressure. I did some reading on it and from what I saw, fish\/squid\/etc lack swim bladders and as a result lack anything left in their bodies to be compressed. Yet I'm still a bit confused on how these animals even open their mouths under all that weight.. how they have an open stomach. Wouldn't that be flattened as well? The only thing I could think of is that the pressure inside their bodies maybe equalize the pressure on the outside.<br \/>Which brings me the to the last part of the question. As a part of that video, I saw that a leatherback sea turtle has a maximum diving depth of 1,280 meters. Yet just before that it mentioned that the pressure that far down is roughly equivalent to a polar bear standing on a postage stamp. I can kind of overlook how fish do it, but I can't really imagine a polar bear standing on a sea turtle's face and it be just fine. I can't even imagine me being able to punch a sea turtle in the face and it being fine. Yet apparently it's somehow invincible.","answer_a":"Fill a baloon with water. Immerse it in water. What do you think the water is going to do with it?<br \/>Of course it's squishy, especially outside water, but it's not like water can somehow compress other water which is what's mostly inside most creatures.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why deep sea animals are not more resilient at the surface. One reason is that they lack swim bladders, which helps them to float. Without this, they would sink to the bottom of the ocean and be crushed by the pressure. Another reason is that they have a higher density than surface animals, which makes it harder for them to float. Finally, deep sea animals have adapted to the high pressure and cold temperatures of the deep ocean, and would not be able to survive in the warmer, shallower waters of the surface.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice because it is well formulated and easy to follow. Answer A does not contain complete information which is being asked in the question and contain some spelling and grammatical mistakes. For example, ''baloon'' it should be ''balloon''.\nAnswer B has proper explanation to the question with reasons which makes the reader to understand it comprehensively.\n''One reason is that they lack swim bladders, which helps them to float. Without this, they would sink to the bottom of the ocean and be crushed by the pressure. Another reason is that they have a higher density than surface animals, which makes it harder for them to float.'' These statements make the answer B more comprehensive."}
{"question":"Why aren't identical twins half the size of single humans?<br \/>If identical twins are created when a single fertilized egg splits on half during development, why do those two halves form into normal humans? Wouldn't they only have half of the normal mass\/size of a single-child pregnancy? I mean, if a fertilized egg splits and the two fragments can form into two normal sized humans, wouldn't that mean if the egg never split, the single human would have the mass\/size of the two twins combined? Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? Sorry if this sounds like rambling, but I can't find any information on this topic online.","answer_a":"The egg does not contain all the material of the final human being. Eggs are large by cell standards - they're about the size of the period at the end of this sentence if you're using a typical monitor - but they're much smaller than a fetus or newborn child.<br \/>And in fact, the fertilized egg *doesn't* typically split in half with identical twins. Instead, identical twins diverge a little later in development (a few days in) during the split between the cells that form the placenta and the cells that form what will eventually be the final human. A single layer of cells (called the *trophoblast*) forms the placenta, and inside that is a blob of cells (the \"inner cell mass\") that forms the embryo. In identical twins, *two* inner cell masses form instead of one. But at this point the placenta attaches to and begins receiving nutrients from the uterine wall.<br \/>So while the two embyros begin slightly smaller than they otherwise would, they have access to outside nutrients very early in development, and it's those outside nutrients that enable actual growth in size.","answer_b":"> Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? <br \/>Essentially, yes.  Identical twinning is a genetically transmitted characteristic, so the initial cell would \"know\" that it was going to twin, and would have to go through one extra division.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better choice than answer B because it has relevant detail of the process being asked in the question. While answer B has irrelevant information '' >does the cell somehow know...'' this statement makes no sense related to the thing being asked in the question.\nAnswer A is better choice as it explains the proper mechanism through which properly sized humans are developed. \nActually, identical twins happens when a single egg is fertilized. The egg then divides in 2, creating identical twins who share the same genes. As a fertilized egg has all the genetic information of a human stored in it, so when it is divided into two then both the cells have same genetic information stored and can be developed into complete human.\nSo, this the reason which is better explained in answer A."}
{"question":"Why isn't there a single pill that contains all the necessary vitamins, minerals and other nutritions one needs?<br \/>","answer_a":"What would happen to the gut microbiome?","answer_b":"Because you are expected to eat some of your necessary vitamins throughout the day in your food. Vitamin pills are supplements to cover the parts that are not in everyday foods","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice over answer A. \nAnswer A has no explanation according to the question rather it contains question itself. \nSomehow, answer B contains some relevant information which make it better choice over the other. \nActually, supplements are not intended to replace food. Our body needs different kinds of nutrients like proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and vitamins. Pills cannot replicate all of the nutrients and benefits of whole foods, such as fruits and vegetables.\n Both the answers lack such kind of information but still answer B is better choice."}
{"question":"Why do bugs love the underside of rocks or fallen logs anyway?<br \/>is it the humidity? the darkness? also why?","answer_a":"It's to hide from predators, birds and rodents especially. Birds and rodents will eat the hell out of small insects so they hide to prevent this from happening, so they can continue to reproduce and keep from going extinct. Also there's a lot of moisture there too so thats a big plus","answer_b":"Humidity can play an important part, especially in warmer environments where exposed water evaporates fast enough to be dangerous for unprotected worms. Another one is that rocks provide protection from birds.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to decide which option is better because both the answers explains the accurate information to some extent with relevancy. Still, I believe answer A is better option because of its relevant and comprehensive information.\nActually, bugs needs protection from birds and predators as well as moist places to reside and to reproduce. They found such places underside of rocks or fallen logs. This information is provided in answer A. It contains a grammatically incorrect statement ''will eat the hell out of''. \nOverall, answer A is better choice due to its content.\n  "}
{"question":"How are sperms made in the body?<br \/>More specifically, how does a Sperm become X or Y sperm.","answer_a":"Not going too much into the scientificy details, mainly because I don't remember them from high school  2 decades ago, but basically the cell division that occurs to form the reproductive cells (sperm\/eggs) in humans is not the same as the cell division for none reproductive cells. <br \/>When the \"normal\" cells split, they create complete copies of each chromosome pair (your DNA is made of pairs of each chromosome. One comes from the father, one from the mother), so the child cells end up with a complete set of DNA. <br \/>Reproductive cells split the chromosome pairs. The child cells only receive one chromosome from each pair. In the case of the sex chromosome pair, a male has an XY pair and a female has an XX pair. So when a male creates reproductive cells (sperm), one sperm will receive the X chromosome and the other will have the Y chromosome.","answer_b":"When most cells divide, they copy themselves once then split once, so both copied cells have X *and* Y. Sperm basically come from 1 copy but 2 splits, so you get one X sperm and one Y sperm from the second split.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer A is better choice because it contains some relevant information and the writer tries to explain the whole process more clearly as compared to answer B.\nAnswer B does not contain clear and comprehensive information like mentioning of ''1 copy but 2 splits''. This statement does not explain the copy and splitting. \nAccording to scientific point of view, testes are responsible for making testosterone, the primary sex harmone, and and for producing sperms.\nThough answer A has some irrelevant information '' not going too much into...'' but still it is well formulated and easy to follow.\nSo, answer A is better choice."}
{"question":"Why dental tartar is so hard and bounds to teeth like glue? It's like a secondary tooth made of bacterias.<br \/>","answer_a":"I brush twice a day, waterpik nightly and visit dentist every 6 months. I still get tartar build up. Now here is my question, I have receding gums (already has surgery to help mitigate), why can tartar stick to teeth but they can't come up with something to coat my teeth below the gumline to protect them. <br \/>Dentistry is amazing in what they can do but this seems like a fairly simple thing to fix seeing that they can whiten, lighten, root canal, and laminate my pearly whites.","answer_b":"Dental tartar is hard because it is made up of minerals that have been deposited on the teeth. These minerals are mostly calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate, which are very hard. The bacteria in dental tartar also contribute to its hardness, as they produce a sticky substance that binds the tartar to the teeth.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice as it explains the reasons behind hardness of dental tartar and describes the composition of the tartar. It also explains how bacteria helps in sticking materials and make them harder.\nWhile answer A contains totally irrelevant information which has no real clue about the answer of this question. \"I brush twice a day, waterpik nightly and visit dentist every 6 months. I still get tartar build up. Now here is my question, I have receding gums (already has surgery to help mitigate), why can tartar stick to teeth but they can't come up with something to coat my teeth below the gumline to protect them.\" These statements are irrelevant.\nSo, answer B is better choice. "}
{"question":"Why do older black tattoos look blue?<br \/>Why do black tattoos look navy blue after a few years?<br \/>I\u2019ve got a few that are looking a lot more blue than black now they\u2019re a few years old. I know age and being in the sun a lot changes tattoos colour but I\u2019ve always been super careful with tattoo specific sun screen when I\u2019m outside. <br \/>I understand tattoos can \u201cspread\u201d over time but my other coloured tattoos still are the original colour, whereas the black mostly looks dark blue now.<br \/>Why is it that black \u201cfades\u201d so fast?","answer_a":"If I recall it's because they used \"India Ink\" for most tattoos, I'm not very familiar with it but if you search online I'm sure you can find a more detailed explanation.<br \/>Edit: Quote from an article I found after searching google for 10 seconds: some Indian inks have been known to turn a grey, blue or green color while fading too making your tattoo look even worse.\"","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why older black tattoos may look blue. First, as tattoos age, the ink can spread and become thinner, making the colors appear less saturated. Second, exposure to sunlight can cause tattoo ink to fade, and black ink is particularly susceptible to this. Finally, some inks contain pigments that are not very stable and can break down over time, resulting in a change in color.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer B is better choice as it is well formulated, accurate and easy to follow. It explains the relevant information being asked in the question.\nAnswer B contains different reasons for becoming the older tattoos becoming blue like age of tattoos, exposure to sunlight and nature of pigments found in ink.\nWhile answer A does not contain any relevant information regarding answer to this question rather it refers to search on google  to find the answer to this question.\nSo, option B is better choice for this question as it is very close to correct answer."}
{"question":"What is happening when you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time?<br \/>","answer_a":"When you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time, you are experiencing a migraine with aura. Auras are visual disturbances that can occur before or during a migraine. They typically last for less than an hour and can include seeing flashes of light, zig-zag lines, or blind spots. Some people also experience other aura symptoms, such as changes in smell, taste, or touch.","answer_b":"My wife gets these.<br \/>An ocular migraine is a condition where the blood vessels in the optic nerve at the back of your eye tighten and swell, resulting in various visual distortions. While classic migraines  usually result in intense headaches, sensitivity to light and loud sounds, or nausea, ocular migraines are not necessarily painful.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better choice because it is well formulated, easy to follow and contains relevant information. \nAnswer A explains the answer correctly according to the medical point of view by mentioning the aura and all causes which result in loss of vision due to migraine. Also, answer A is well structured than answer B.\n\nAnswer B contains irrelevant information regarding to issue of his wife and the pains associated with migraines. It does not follow the question quite well. \nSo, answer A is better choice."}
{"question":"why do we have goosebumps ? i know it's because of cold\/fear, but why does our body do that ?<br \/>","answer_a":"I think it\u2019s one of those ancestral features we still have to these days. Think of those mammals who use fur to get bigger in order to scary predators or fluffier to get warmer in cold weather. That\u2019s goosebumps basically!","answer_b":"It's a reaction that puffs up our body hair to trap more air to keep us warm or make us look bigger. Humans lost our fur, but not the reaction. Hope this helps","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is difficult to chose which is better option because both of the answers explains the thing being asked in the question, correctly.\nBut answer B is better option than answer A because it is well formulated and easy to follow.\nActually, goosebumps occurs when tiny muscles in our skin's hair follicles, called arrector pili muscles, pull hair upright. With animals with thick fur, this response helps them keep warm. But it does not do so for people.(nih.gov)\nAnswer A contains grammatical mistake \"we still have to these days\" and it should be \"we still have to this day.\"\nSo, answer B is better choice for this question."}
{"question":"why do we as humans have the urge to pick scabs so much?<br \/>","answer_a":"As the skin regrows and starts filling out, the scab that formed does not grow with it, therefore causing irritation and pulling sensation that can only be gotten rid of by removing the scab so skin can fill out normally without the restraints of a scab. Vanity is also a large driver in wanting or needing to remove a scab. The above mentioned is really quite normal. <br \/>Skin picking really only becomes a problem when it causes significant disruptions in one's every day life.<br \/> Dermatillomania is a form of obsessive compulsion disorder where a person will feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>Body dysmorphic disorder can also cause a person to feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>With both dermatillomania and body dysmorphic disorder a person's life is often disrupted by a large scale due to these compulsions.","answer_b":"I got news for ya. It isn't limited to humans. Hence, why we give our pets the \"cone of shame\". They fuck with their wounds too!","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better choice because it is well formulated, easy to follow and contains relevant information according to the question. While answer B does not follow the question and contains irrelevant information.\nAccording to research, the mild pain associated with picking a scab also releases endorphins, which can act as a reward. Scab picking, like many grooming behaviors , is also a displacement activity that can help to distract us when we are bored, stressed or anxious. (sciencefocus.com)\nSo, answer A is better option than answer B."}
{"question":"Does your body absorb all blood clots? How does it do it? Does location affect it?<br \/>","answer_a":"Kind of. Your blood will dissolve clots over time. I've got a clotting disorder and need to take thinners to make that happen faster, but for most they break down clots naturally settlement on how much blood flow there is to an area and if there's any muscle action to help break them up. They can be dangerous though when breaking up as the can travel to your heart, lungs or brain and cause death by blocking blood flow.","answer_b":"No, your body does not absorb all blood clots. Clots are usually broken down by the body's natural clotting mechanism, but some clots may persist and cause problems. Location can affect how quickly a clot is broken down. For example, clots in the veins are usually broken down more slowly than clots in the arteries.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, answer B is better choice over answer A because it explains some relevant information according to the question. While answer A contains irrelevant information which does not answer to the question.\nAnswer B is better option as it is answering to the question by covering all the necessary points of the question. For example, mentioning of body's natural mechanism and effect of location etc. Answer A mentioning some inaccurate and irrelevant information, like role of blood thinner which is not correct as they cannot break down the clots.\nAlso, answer A explains someone's personal medical information which cannot be implied for everyone since each individual has his\/her own body mechanism and medical history.\nSo, Answer B is better choice for this question as it covers all relevant points of the question."}
{"question":"why we can't taste things when we have a stuffy nose, even though our taste buds still work?<br \/>","answer_a":"When we have a stuffy nose, the air flow to our olfactory bulb is blocked. This is the part of the brain responsible for our sense of smell. Without the olfactory bulb, we are unable to smell the molecules that we need to taste food.","answer_b":"You can only taste, with your tongue, a very small number of flavours.  Like half a dozen.<br \/>What you think of as taste is actually almost entirely smell.  We can detect millions of different smells.  When you have a stuffed nose you can't smell properly and so food \"tastes\" bland.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, Answer A is better option than answer B because it is well formulated and easy to follow with its relevant information. According to research, the tastes we perceive are a combination of both the sense of taste from our taste buds- clusters of sensory cells connected to nerve fibers that receive taste sensations- as well as the sense of smell. When your smell and taste nerves are stimulated, signals are sent to the brain, which translates those signals and identifies what you are tasting.(This process is explained well in answer A w.r.t the olfactory bulbs.) When we're sick, our noses are often blocked with mucus. Also, the tissues inside our nose can become swollen and inflamed. This prevents us from smelling properly. Because your sense of smell is so tied to your sense of taste, if you can't smell things properly, you won't be able to taste them properly, either. (ceenta.com) No such explanation is provided in answer B but on the other hand, Answer A explains the important points in better way. So, Answer A is better choice for this question."}
{"question":"how spiders produce webs<br \/>What are webs made out of and what do spiders convert in their bodies to produce the web substance? It seems like they produce so much web for the size of their bodies.","answer_a":"Webs are made out of a protein called silk. Spiders convert the protein into a liquid form in their bodies and then secrete it through their spinnerets. The liquid silk hardens when it comes into contact with the air, forming the web.<br \/><br \/>Spiders can produce a lot of silk because they have a high concentration of the protein in their bodies. They also have special organs called spinnerets that are specifically designed for secreting the silk.","answer_b":"They have organs called spinnerets on their underside or rear. Each species of spider has a varying number of them, but usually they're in a cluster. On the end of each spinneret is a little nozzle-like spigot out of which a single silk thread comes (the silk is liquid when it's inside).<br \/>There are seven different kinds of silk gland which produce a slightly different kind of silk. No known species of spider has all of them.<br \/>The silk is pulled out of the spinneret by either gravity or one of their hind legs, and they then arrange it in a pattern of activity that differs greatly by species.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"For this question, it is really hard to decide which is better option as both of the answers contains relevant information but still Answer B is better choice. Answer B is better option because it describes all the necessary points thoroughly that are required for the answer to assess correctly. It is the better option over answer A because it is mentioning the correct and necessary points like \"Silk producing glands\" and \"liquid form of silk before releasing\". No such points are discussed in answer A which make it weaker candidate over answer B. Silk producing glands are necessary in web producing process. Spider silk is produced in internal glands, moving from a soluble form to a hardened form and then spun into fiber by spinnerets on the spider's abdomen. (smithsonianmag.com) This whole process is explained well in answer B while answer A only sticks to the silk protein which is not enough to explain the whole web producing process. So, answer B is better option over answer A for this question."}
{"question":"Why do bugs love the underside of rocks or fallen logs anyway?<br \/>is it the humidity? the darkness? also why?","answer_a":"It's to hide from predators, birds and rodents especially. Birds and rodents will eat the hell out of small insects so they hide to prevent this from happening, so they can continue to reproduce and keep from going extinct. Also there's a lot of moisture there too so thats a big plus","answer_b":"Humidity can play an important part, especially in warmer environments where exposed water evaporates fast enough to be dangerous for unprotected worms. Another one is that rocks provide protection from birds.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers contain the same content and level of detail, however, answer B is written slightly less casually. \n\nAnswer A contains \"will eat the hell out of\" - grammatically incorrect \n\nAnswer A is written more casually which can be good or bad depending on the reader \n\nBother answers would benefit from including a bit more content and detail "}
{"question":"Why isn't there a single pill that contains all the necessary vitamins, minerals and other nutritions one needs?<br \/>","answer_a":"What would happen to the gut microbiome?","answer_b":"Because you are expected to eat some of your necessary vitamins throughout the day in your food. Vitamin pills are supplements to cover the parts that are not in everyday foods","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers do not contain enough content to properly answer the question sufficiently. \n\n Answer A contains no useful information and is only a question. "}
{"question":"Why aren't identical twins half the size of single humans?<br \/>If identical twins are created when a single fertilized egg splits on half during development, why do those two halves form into normal humans? Wouldn't they only have half of the normal mass\/size of a single-child pregnancy? I mean, if a fertilized egg splits and the two fragments can form into two normal sized humans, wouldn't that mean if the egg never split, the single human would have the mass\/size of the two twins combined? Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? Sorry if this sounds like rambling, but I can't find any information on this topic online.","answer_a":"The egg does not contain all the material of the final human being. Eggs are large by cell standards - they're about the size of the period at the end of this sentence if you're using a typical monitor - but they're much smaller than a fetus or newborn child.<br \/>And in fact, the fertilized egg *doesn't* typically split in half with identical twins. Instead, identical twins diverge a little later in development (a few days in) during the split between the cells that form the placenta and the cells that form what will eventually be the final human. A single layer of cells (called the *trophoblast*) forms the placenta, and inside that is a blob of cells (the \"inner cell mass\") that forms the embryo. In identical twins, *two* inner cell masses form instead of one. But at this point the placenta attaches to and begins receiving nutrients from the uterine wall.<br \/>So while the two embyros begin slightly smaller than they otherwise would, they have access to outside nutrients very early in development, and it's those outside nutrients that enable actual growth in size.","answer_b":"> Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off? <br \/>Essentially, yes.  Identical twinning is a genetically transmitted characteristic, so the initial cell would \"know\" that it was going to twin, and would have to go through one extra division.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Although answer A is the better answer, it does contain some irrelevant information like \"Eggs are large by cell standards - they're about the size of the period at the end of this sentence if you're using a typical monitor - but they're much smaller than a fetus or newborn child\"\n\nAnswer B contains irrelevant information like \"> Does the cell somehow know that it split, and somehow it then knows that despite losing half of what it already had as a single egg, it needs to develop as if it never had the material from the portion that split off?\" \n\nAnswer B states \"Identical twinning is a genetically transmitted characteristic,\" which is confusing and inaccurate.\n\nAnswer A is better as it provides more detail, a mechanistic explanation of what has happened, and why the cells can develop into properly sized humans. "}
{"question":"How are deep sea animals not more resilient at the surface?<br \/>This might sound like a dumb question but I promise I'm serious. I was watching a video on the depth of the ocean and it got me curious how deep sea creatures don't immediately squash under all that pressure. I did some reading on it and from what I saw, fish\/squid\/etc lack swim bladders and as a result lack anything left in their bodies to be compressed. Yet I'm still a bit confused on how these animals even open their mouths under all that weight.. how they have an open stomach. Wouldn't that be flattened as well? The only thing I could think of is that the pressure inside their bodies maybe equalize the pressure on the outside.<br \/>Which brings me the to the last part of the question. As a part of that video, I saw that a leatherback sea turtle has a maximum diving depth of 1,280 meters. Yet just before that it mentioned that the pressure that far down is roughly equivalent to a polar bear standing on a postage stamp. I can kind of overlook how fish do it, but I can't really imagine a polar bear standing on a sea turtle's face and it be just fine. I can't even imagine me being able to punch a sea turtle in the face and it being fine. Yet apparently it's somehow invincible.","answer_a":"Fill a baloon with water. Immerse it in water. What do you think the water is going to do with it?<br \/>Of course it's squishy, especially outside water, but it's not like water can somehow compress other water which is what's mostly inside most creatures.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why deep sea animals are not more resilient at the surface. One reason is that they lack swim bladders, which helps them to float. Without this, they would sink to the bottom of the ocean and be crushed by the pressure. Another reason is that they have a higher density than surface animals, which makes it harder for them to float. Finally, deep sea animals have adapted to the high pressure and cold temperatures of the deep ocean, and would not be able to survive in the warmer, shallower waters of the surface.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A contains grammatical and spelling mistakes - \"baloon\" is supposed to be spelt balloon, \"Immerse it in water.\" is not a proper sentence. \n\nAnswer A doesn't answer the question \n\n\"Fill a baloon with water. Immerse it in water. What do you think the water is going to do with it?\" (A) is irrelevant \n\nAnswer B provides explanations and details that actually answer the question and educate the reader"}
{"question":"Why does darkness in a dark room feel different than the darkness when you close your eyes?<br \/>","answer_a":"Your eyelids are not very good at blocking light. Their main job is to protect and moisturise the eyes, not prevent you seeing things, that's just a useful bonus. After all, we evolved in a world where there was very little artificial light. At night, it would be pitch black - there'd be no extra light for your eyes to block as you're trying to sleep anyway. If you pay attention next time you close your eyes in a bright environment, you'll notice that what you're seeing isn't black, it's a red glow. This is the light passing through your blood-filled eyelid skin.","answer_b":"In my experience, this comes from the fact that in one situation you do not control the darkness while the other is you in control of your shutters.<br \/>Maybe someone else can dive further into this.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B contains irrelevant information like \"In my experience,\" and \"Maybe someone else can dive further into this\"\n\nAnswer B is overly simplistic stating \"in one situation you do not control the darkness while the other is you in control of your shutters\" which also doesn't answer the question of why your perception is different, not how is the mechanism different. \n\nAnswer A provides a more detailed and accurate explanation stating that \"eyelids are not very good at blocking light.\" and that this is different than absolute darkness and that the red hue we see is due to diffraction from blood. "}
{"question":"Why do people go bald on the top of their head and still have some on the sides and not vice-versa?<br \/>","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why people go bald on the top of their head and still have some hair on the sides. One reason is that the hair follicles on the top of the head are more sensitive to a hormone called dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is a byproduct of testosterone and is found in both men and women. When DHT levels are high, it can cause the hair follicles on the top of the head to miniaturize, which leads to hair loss. Another reason is that the hair on the sides and back of the head is not as exposed to the sun and other environmental factors, which can damage the hair and lead to hair loss.","answer_b":"Seems unsettled but here\u2019s a theory:<br \/>\u201cThe most recent hypothesis suggests that the hair loss process begins during puberty, when growth of the skull and the muscles in the forehead and neck increases the tension in a tight band of tissue stretching over the top of the head. The more DHT (a type of testosterone) there is, the more these muscles contract, which causes inflammation and brings in more DHT. Over time, the DHT thickens the band of tissue, restricting the supply of blood and nutrients to the hair follicles above it. The follicles on top of the head get smaller and eventually disappear, while those on the sides of the head remain largely unaffected.\u201d<br \/>Source<br \/>https:\/\/www.sciencefocus.com\/the-human-body\/why-do-men-go-bald-from-the-top-of-their-heads\/","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is well written, includes multiple theories (as this is a debated topic), and accurate. \n\nAnswer B is a copied and pasted answer from science-direct which makes it slightly inaccessible and unclear. Answer B also seems less likely to be true as it stresses a single detailed theory on a topic that is unclear. Answer A is better here because it presents both sides of the argument. "}
{"question":"why can some animals go for months without eating but humans need to eat within a couple of days?<br \/>","answer_a":"We can. [A man who weighed 456 lbs. was able to go 382 days with no food at all](https:\/\/www.sciencealert.com\/the-true-story-of-a-man-who-survived-without-any-food-for-382-days). Just like a hibernating bear, we can live an extended amount of time just on fat stores alone.","answer_b":"Humans don't need to eat within a couple of days--even without vitamin supplements you can survive a good couple of months without food. They won't be \\*pleasant\\* months by any means, but you'll survive. Water, on the other hand, is critical. Three days without that and you're almost certainly pushing up daisies.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither answer actually includes the mechanisms of how humans adapt to starvation and how we can metabolically reprogram to adapt to this change. Neither answer also includes how certain non-mammal animals (which are generally cold-blooded like snakes and crocs) differ metabolically from warm-blooded animals. \n\nAnswer B states \"even without vitamin supplements you can survive a good couple of months without food\" which is incorrect. There are necessary vitamins that are needed in order to survive. \n\nAnswer B states \"and you're almost certainly pushing up daisies.\" which is unclear and I'm not sure what it means. \n\nAnswer A states \"we can live an extended amount of time just on fat stores alone.\" which is incorrect as we will also break down muscle to metabolize amino acids. "}
{"question":"Why do people tell a dying person to stay awake, or to stay with them?<br \/>I see this in a lot of films and series; a person has a shotwound or some other fatal injury and the one helping them tells him\/her to \"stay with them\" or to \"don't fall asleep.\" Why do they say that? Is it just something that happens in movies? Or does it have a serious reason?<br \/>I asked my brother this question and he said that they say that to prevent people going into shock, but he answered quite unsure. And if this is the answer, why would we prevent people from going into shock. Your body goes into shock to stay alive longer, so wouldn't it be a good thing? <br \/>I couldn't find anything on google, but maybe that's just because I'm bad at finding things on google. Also, english isn't my first language, so excuse me if there are any spelling or grammar errors.","answer_a":"You're referring to somone who is dying from a grievous injury or overdose, and not of natural causes. <br \/>When alert the pituitary gland in the brain produces ACTH, vassopressin and cortisol, especially when one knows one is in danger. ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce adrenaline,  and norepinephrine.<br \/>Epinephrine, norepinephrine, vasopressin, and cortisol all act to contract blood vessels and raise blood pressure.  The first two raise heart rate and increse breathing rate. Cortisol releases glucose from the liver. <br \/>This can all reduce blood loss from an injury. It can also prevent *shock* which is a catastrophic drop in blood pressure that can be difficult to reverse once it sets in. Untreated shock typically results in loss of oxygen to the brain resulting in brain injury and rapid death.<br \/>In the case of a drug overdose or alcohol poisoning this is important as it keeps the victim breathing.","answer_b":"It\u2019s for dramatic effect. <br \/>If you were fatally wounded to the point of losing enough blood that you could go into shock and lose consciousness, you\u2019re beyond the point of your nervous system being able to keep your blood pressure high enough to power your brain.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers contain inaccuracies and don't fully answer the question, however, answer A provides more details regarding the hormones and is more right. \n\nIn answer A, it states \"Cortisol releases glucose from the liver.\" which is true but irrelevant for the timescale of shock. \n\nAnswer A states \"ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce adrenaline, and norepinephrine.\" which is absolutely incorrect. ACTH stimulates cortisol production and has nothing to do with A\/NA. Second, the adrenal glands produce negligible amount of NA, they mainly produce adrenaline. \n\nAnswer A discusses overdoses and the mechanisms for maintaining consciousness in an overdose situation vs. a fatal stab or gunshot wound are very different due to different mechanisms of injury. \n\nAnswer B states \"If you were fatally wounded to the point of losing enough blood that you could go into shock and lose consciousness, you\u2019re beyond the point of your nervous system being able to keep your blood pressure high enough to power your brain.\" which isn't necessarily true. We are able to medically treat and reverse shock in hospital. \n\nAnswer A states \"Untreated shock typically results in loss of oxygen to the brain resulting in brain injury and rapid death.\" The bigger issue with shock is the inability to maintain perfusion and blood pressure. Although this results in a lack of oxygenation, it also prevents the delivery of glucose, fluid, and many other important substrates. "}
{"question":"Why do so many youth get their tonsils removed?<br \/>","answer_a":"For quite some time it was believed that they were useless leftovers from the past that we don\u2019t need anymore, vestigial organ. If they got infected it was just easier to remove them and not deal with repeat infections. Now we know that they are not a vestigial organ and are not useless. Since we know this now they try to leave them in and just deal with infections, however sometimes they do still need to come out for reasons. It won\u2019t majorly affect your life not having them, as millions of people have survived without them just fine. But they do have a use in our bodies and if they can be left in they should be.","answer_b":"Worth noting that it varies wildly according to where you are. The extremes are from 1.9\/100,000 to 11.8\/100,000 <br \/>It was very common when I was a kid in the 60s - more than a few sore throats in a year and they wanted to take them out. My parents resisted - and eventually it settled down anyway.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B does not answer the question and contains irrelevant information like \"it varies wildly according to where you are. The extremes are from 1.9\/100,000 to 11.8\/100,000\" and \"My parents resisted - and eventually it settled down anyway.\" \n\nAnswer B contains grammatical errors like \"Worth noting that it varies wildly according to where you are\" \n\nAnswer A is better because it fully answers the question with accurate information and provides necessary background about why previous misconceptions were wrong. "}
{"question":"Why is it so important for humans to have a balanced nutrition but not for animals?<br \/>Most animals have a fairly simple diet, carnivores eat only meat their whole life, cows eat exclusively grass etc. So why are human bodies so picky and need a balance of protein, fat, carbs etc from different sources to perform well?","answer_a":"Your question includes a few common misconceptions, one that's been addressed already.<br \/>Humans need a balanced diet, but that doesn't necessarily imply a vast array of food types. That simply means the nutritional value of our food has to cover our needs. <br \/>It doesn't have to be varied. You can very well thrive by eating the same handful of things every day.","answer_b":"The human body is much more complex than the bodies of most animals. Humans need a balance of nutrients in order to function properly. Protein, fat, and carbohydrates are all essential nutrients that the body needs in order to function.<br \/><br \/>Animals generally have a simpler diet than humans. For example, carnivores only eat meat, while cows only eat grass. However, the human body is much more complex and needs a variety of different nutrients to function properly. A balanced diet is essential for humans in order to maintain good health.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B contains mainly incorrect information like \"The human body is much more complex than the bodies of most animals.\" - this is completely not true, we are simpler and\/or different than a number of other mammals and animals. \n\nAnswer B states \"Animals generally have a simpler diet than humans. For example, carnivores only eat meat, while cows only eat grass.\" - this is a reductionist view of animal nutrition as it doesn't consider how animals have evolved and the complexities of the food chain. For example, lions are carnivores that only eat meat but they eat the stomach of zebras that contain grass\/plants and are able to digest it. \n\nAnswer A states \"Your question includes a few common misconceptions, one that's been addressed already.\" and this information should be included in this answer in order to enrich it. "}
{"question":"How are sperms made in the body?<br \/>More specifically, how does a Sperm become X or Y sperm.","answer_a":"Not going too much into the scientificy details, mainly because I don't remember them from high school  2 decades ago, but basically the cell division that occurs to form the reproductive cells (sperm\/eggs) in humans is not the same as the cell division for none reproductive cells. <br \/>When the \"normal\" cells split, they create complete copies of each chromosome pair (your DNA is made of pairs of each chromosome. One comes from the father, one from the mother), so the child cells end up with a complete set of DNA. <br \/>Reproductive cells split the chromosome pairs. The child cells only receive one chromosome from each pair. In the case of the sex chromosome pair, a male has an XY pair and a female has an XX pair. So when a male creates reproductive cells (sperm), one sperm will receive the X chromosome and the other will have the Y chromosome.","answer_b":"When most cells divide, they copy themselves once then split once, so both copied cells have X *and* Y. Sperm basically come from 1 copy but 2 splits, so you get one X sperm and one Y sperm from the second split.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B doesn't distinguish between men and women which is pertinent in this question. \n\nAnswer B lacks detail to make the answer clear. \"Sperm basically come from 1 copy but 2 splits\" - copy of what? splitting of what? \n\nAnswer A contains irrelevant information \"Not going too much into the scientificy details, mainly because I don't remember them from high school 2 decades ago, \" \n\nAnswer A has a better flow, is more comprehensive and better answers the question. "}
{"question":"Why dental tartar is so hard and bounds to teeth like glue? It's like a secondary tooth made of bacterias.<br \/>","answer_a":"I brush twice a day, waterpik nightly and visit dentist every 6 months. I still get tartar build up. Now here is my question, I have receding gums (already has surgery to help mitigate), why can tartar stick to teeth but they can't come up with something to coat my teeth below the gumline to protect them. <br \/>Dentistry is amazing in what they can do but this seems like a fairly simple thing to fix seeing that they can whiten, lighten, root canal, and laminate my pearly whites.","answer_b":"Dental tartar is hard because it is made up of minerals that have been deposited on the teeth. These minerals are mostly calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate, which are very hard. The bacteria in dental tartar also contribute to its hardness, as they produce a sticky substance that binds the tartar to the teeth.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A doesn't answer the question and the entire answer contains irrelevant information \"I brush twice a day, waterpik nightly and visit dentist every 6 months. I still get tartar build up. Now here is my question, I have receding gums (already has surgery to help mitigate), why can tartar stick to teeth but they can't come up with something to coat my teeth below the gumline to protect them. Dentistry is amazing in what they can do but this seems like a fairly simple thing to fix seeing that they can whiten, lighten, root canal, and laminate my pearly whites.\" - none of this answers why dental tartar forms or why it sticks to teeth. "}
{"question":"If under anesthesia do you get your sleep needed for the day?<br \/>","answer_a":"No. The unconsciousness induced by both IV anesthetics and inhaled anesthetics is very different from restorative sleep. In fact, patients in ICUs who are sedated for long periods of time with some of the same medications they use in anesthesia get delirium from both a lack of sleep and a lack of proper awake time. <br \/>This is also true for prescription benzodiazepines like Ativan (lorazepam) and Xanax (alprazolam) which are often prescribed for insomnia but do not produce true sleep. <br \/>There is an IV sedative called Dexmedetomodine (precedex) that produces an unconsciousness more similar to sleep and has been shown to reduce the risk of ICU delirium vs more common medications like propofol. It is also used as an adjunct in anesthetic practice. But it is not nearly as prominent as propofol or inhaled anesthetics for a few reasons. First, it takes longer to work so after a dose you have to wait 15-30min for it to take effect (propofol is within a minute or so) and it lasts longer once it is stopped. Additionally, up until recently it was on patent and quite expensive. The patent recently expired and it is seeing increased use but I doubt it will ever become as popular as propofol.  <br \/>EDIT: Precedex also isn't a full anesthetic in standard practice so for surgery under general anesthesia it still needs to be used with another medicine like propofol or anesthesia gas.  Thanks u\/bluejay54 for the reminder.  <br \/>True ELI5: Sleep = charging your phone on airplane mode. Anesthesia = turning your phone off but not charging it. credit to u\/greatpiginthesty<br \/>I am an ICU RN and am starting anesthesia training soon.","answer_b":"There is no clear consensus on whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day. Some studies suggest that people under anesthesia do get some sleep, but it is not clear how deep or restful this sleep is. Other studies suggest that people under anesthesia do not get any meaningful sleep at all. Therefore, it is difficult to say definitively whether or not people under anesthesia get the sleep they need for the day.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A contains more detail throughout the body but the bottom edit equating sleep to charging the phone and anesthesia to turning it off but not charging best explains the difference between these two concepts. \n\nAnswer B isn't bad, but it doesn't as explicitly answer the question as A. \n\nAnswer A contains some irrelevant information like the patent about certain drugs, drug names, and delirium. However, it answers the question more cohesively than answer B. "}
{"question":"Why do older black tattoos look blue?<br \/>Why do black tattoos look navy blue after a few years?<br \/>I\u2019ve got a few that are looking a lot more blue than black now they\u2019re a few years old. I know age and being in the sun a lot changes tattoos colour but I\u2019ve always been super careful with tattoo specific sun screen when I\u2019m outside. <br \/>I understand tattoos can \u201cspread\u201d over time but my other coloured tattoos still are the original colour, whereas the black mostly looks dark blue now.<br \/>Why is it that black \u201cfades\u201d so fast?","answer_a":"If I recall it's because they used \"India Ink\" for most tattoos, I'm not very familiar with it but if you search online I'm sure you can find a more detailed explanation.<br \/>Edit: Quote from an article I found after searching google for 10 seconds: some Indian inks have been known to turn a grey, blue or green color while fading too making your tattoo look even worse.\"","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why older black tattoos may look blue. First, as tattoos age, the ink can spread and become thinner, making the colors appear less saturated. Second, exposure to sunlight can cause tattoo ink to fade, and black ink is particularly susceptible to this. Finally, some inks contain pigments that are not very stable and can break down over time, resulting in a change in color.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A does not contain enough information to answer the question - it states \"if you search online I'm sure you can find a more detailed explanation.\" which doesn't answer the question \n\nAnswer A also doesn't answer the question. It states that the ink changes colour because it contains India Ink but it doesn't say why this happens which the questions asks. \n\nNeither answer answers \"Why do black tattoos look navy blue after a few years?\" but answer B gets closer to answering this thank answer A. "}
{"question":"What is happening when you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time?<br \/>","answer_a":"When you get migraines that cause you to lose part of your vision for a short time, you are experiencing a migraine with aura. Auras are visual disturbances that can occur before or during a migraine. They typically last for less than an hour and can include seeing flashes of light, zig-zag lines, or blind spots. Some people also experience other aura symptoms, such as changes in smell, taste, or touch.","answer_b":"My wife gets these.<br \/>An ocular migraine is a condition where the blood vessels in the optic nerve at the back of your eye tighten and swell, resulting in various visual distortions. While classic migraines  usually result in intense headaches, sensitivity to light and loud sounds, or nausea, ocular migraines are not necessarily painful.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is logically structured, easy to follow and accurate. \n\nAnswer B contains irrelevant information (writer's wife having them, migraine may not be painful) and does consider the scope of the problem broadly enough. The question is asking about migraines in general but the writer is only responding with ocular migraines which are only one type of migraines. This does not answer the question as well as answer A because answer A is a more accurate answer. \n\n"}
{"question":"why do we have goosebumps ? i know it's because of cold\/fear, but why does our body do that ?<br \/>","answer_a":"I think it\u2019s one of those ancestral features we still have to these days. Think of those mammals who use fur to get bigger in order to scary predators or fluffier to get warmer in cold weather. That\u2019s goosebumps basically!","answer_b":"It's a reaction that puffs up our body hair to trap more air to keep us warm or make us look bigger. Humans lost our fur, but not the reaction. Hope this helps","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is better (though they sounds quite similar!) because the writer sounds more confident and is slightly easier to follow. \n\nAnswer A has slight gramatical faults \"we still have to these days\" should be \"we still have to this day\". \n\nAnswer A states \"who use fur\" and it would be better to say \"who can use their fur\""}
{"question":"why do we as humans have the urge to pick scabs so much?<br \/>","answer_a":"As the skin regrows and starts filling out, the scab that formed does not grow with it, therefore causing irritation and pulling sensation that can only be gotten rid of by removing the scab so skin can fill out normally without the restraints of a scab. Vanity is also a large driver in wanting or needing to remove a scab. The above mentioned is really quite normal. <br \/>Skin picking really only becomes a problem when it causes significant disruptions in one's every day life.<br \/> Dermatillomania is a form of obsessive compulsion disorder where a person will feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>Body dysmorphic disorder can also cause a person to feel the compulsion to pick at their skin. <br \/>With both dermatillomania and body dysmorphic disorder a person's life is often disrupted by a large scale due to these compulsions.","answer_b":"I got news for ya. It isn't limited to humans. Hence, why we give our pets the \"cone of shame\". They fuck with their wounds too!","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B does not answer the question, provides no relevant information, and contains swears. "}
{"question":"Does your body absorb all blood clots? How does it do it? Does location affect it?<br \/>","answer_a":"Kind of. Your blood will dissolve clots over time. I've got a clotting disorder and need to take thinners to make that happen faster, but for most they break down clots naturally settlement on how much blood flow there is to an area and if there's any muscle action to help break them up. They can be dangerous though when breaking up as the can travel to your heart, lungs or brain and cause death by blocking blood flow.","answer_b":"No, your body does not absorb all blood clots. Clots are usually broken down by the body's natural clotting mechanism, but some clots may persist and cause problems. Location can affect how quickly a clot is broken down. For example, clots in the veins are usually broken down more slowly than clots in the arteries.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Neither answer actually answers the question of how are clots broken down. Answer A also doesn't answer how the location of the cloth affects break down. Answer A also predominantly talks about clot formation - the question has asked about clot breakdown which is a different physiological process. \n\nAnswer A contains inaccurate information - blood thinners do not break down clots, they prevent clots from forming in the first place. \n\nAnswer A discusses a person's own medical experience. This may be inaccurate since each individual is unique and what is true of one person's medical history may not be generalizable to everyone. (this is irrelevant information). \n\nAnswer A does not answer the question fully - it implies that blood clots breaking down can lead to blood vessel occlusion. In many cases, blood clots are formed and then dislodged which leads to downstream vessels becoming blocked. \n"}
{"question":"why we can't taste things when we have a stuffy nose, even though our taste buds still work?<br \/>","answer_a":"When we have a stuffy nose, the air flow to our olfactory bulb is blocked. This is the part of the brain responsible for our sense of smell. Without the olfactory bulb, we are unable to smell the molecules that we need to taste food.","answer_b":"You can only taste, with your tongue, a very small number of flavours.  Like half a dozen.<br \/>What you think of as taste is actually almost entirely smell.  We can detect millions of different smells.  When you have a stuffed nose you can't smell properly and so food \"tastes\" bland.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A contains grossly inaccurate information - the olfactory bulb is part of the nose and anatomically located on the superior aspect of the nasal cavity\/sinus. This answer implies that it is part of the brain and that there is reduced airflow to the brain when a person has a stuffy nose which is incorrect. \n\nNeither answer states the correct answer which is - when we have a stuffy nose, there is an overproduction of mucus which blocks the olfactory receptors and cells from being in contact with the air. When we taste food, part of the taste sensation comes from smelling the particles. Since we overproduce mucus when we have a stuffed nose, these olfactory cells can't contact the air to bind and detect the molecules which we smell which leads to reduced taste. \n\nAnswer B states that \"taste is almost entirely smell\" which is a reach and oversimplification \n\nAnswer B doesn't state why a stuffy nose impairs smell\n\nAnswer A states \"without the olfactory bulb\" which implies a stuffy nose gets rid of your olfactory bulb which is wrong. \n"}
{"question":"how spiders produce webs<br \/>What are webs made out of and what do spiders convert in their bodies to produce the web substance? It seems like they produce so much web for the size of their bodies.","answer_a":"Webs are made out of a protein called silk. Spiders convert the protein into a liquid form in their bodies and then secrete it through their spinnerets. The liquid silk hardens when it comes into contact with the air, forming the web.<br \/><br \/>Spiders can produce a lot of silk because they have a high concentration of the protein in their bodies. They also have special organs called spinnerets that are specifically designed for secreting the silk.","answer_b":"They have organs called spinnerets on their underside or rear. Each species of spider has a varying number of them, but usually they're in a cluster. On the end of each spinneret is a little nozzle-like spigot out of which a single silk thread comes (the silk is liquid when it's inside).<br \/>There are seven different kinds of silk gland which produce a slightly different kind of silk. No known species of spider has all of them.<br \/>The silk is pulled out of the spinneret by either gravity or one of their hind legs, and they then arrange it in a pattern of activity that differs greatly by species.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is better as it answers all aspects of the question and provides more accurate information. Answer B also reads better and contains a more logical flow. \n\nAnswer A contains incorrect information - silk is not a protein, it is made up of a protein called fibroin. \n\nAnswer B better explains why spiders produce silk and how the organs function. Additionally, it contains extra information about how silk production varies across spider species and how the webs are designed. "}
{"question":"Why can't currencies change their value to be in line with other currencies? For example, Japanese Yen, Central African Francs and other currencies all have exchange rates to USD\/GBP of decimal places. Why can't 1 CAF or JPY = 1 USD\/GBP?","answer_a":"One of the main reasons why currencies can't change their value to be in line with other currencies is because of the different economic conditions in different countries. For example, Japan has a much stronger economy than the Central African Republic, so the Japanese Yen is worth more than the Central African Franc. If all currencies were worth the same, then it would be very difficult for people to trade goods and services between different countries.","answer_b":"They can, but that would require effort by someone. If, for example, someone wanted JPY to be equal to one USD they would have to buy lots and lots of JPY and pay for it with USD. And I mean LOTS.  <br \/>Central banks sometimes do this, for example the central bank of Denmark holds the Danisk Krone (DKK) at a fixed rate (not 1 to 1, but a still a fixed rate) relative to the Euro (EUR).<br \/>This is expensive, tedious, and there isn't really much point so almost nobody bothers with it. Denmark does it because they wanted to keep the DKK while still being part of the EU, and that was the compromise they reached.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Under economic factors, Answer A is more relevant. \nThe main reason for the difference in the value of currencies is indeed the difference in economic conditions, which is mentioned correctly by A.\nAnswer B does not really answer the 'why' behind why currencies can not change their value. It is just based on an assumption based on the example of a single country (Denmark) but this does not answer the question in a broader sense.\nAnswer A uses factually correct information to answer this question and not through assumptions."}
{"question":"what exactly is money and why can\u2019t we just print more i mean, we created it for currency because of the gold rush or something right??? why did we decide this was best and why can\u2019t we just orint more money ??? what gives a paper bill the value ???","answer_a":"The concept of money is a human invention, not a natural occurrence. Money is an abstract idea that represents a unit of exchange. It is a tool that we use to buy and sell goods and services.<br \/><br \/>The value of money is based on trust. People trust that money will retain its value over time, and that it can be used to purchase goods and services. Money is also a store of value, meaning it can be saved and used in the future.<br \/><br \/>The supply of money is limited. Central banks can print more money, but this can cause inflation, which reduces the value of money. Money is also a scarce resource, which is why we use it as a unit of exchange.<br \/><br \/>There are different types of money, including fiat money, commodity money, and cryptocurrency. Fiat money is money that is not backed by a physical commodity, such as gold or silver. Commodity money is money that is backed by a physical commodity. Cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency that uses cryptography to secure its transactions.","answer_b":"The US uses a Fiat Currency and its value is derived from the supply and demand for it like anything else.<br \/>Governments can and do print money. Theoretically they could print money to pay for all government services, so why don't they?<br \/>The answer is inflation. The more money in circulation the less its overall value.<br \/>Ever see a loaf of bread go for $1000? You can, and you will!<br \/>Post WW2 German and several African nations are examples of extreme inflation, where the government kept printing money but it crippled its value. So while it helped in the short term to fix their problems, printing money eventually caused the money to be worth less than toilet paper.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Although both the answers are good in their own right, Answer B is more related to the question.\nAnswer A is well structured and divides the answer into 4 parts- definition of money, value, supply, and types.\nBut the question only asks 2 things- Why we can't print more money and what gives it value.\nSo Answer A should have focused on explaining both these parts in detail instead of deviating to other aspects which were not contextually related to the question.\nAnswer B is smaller, but much more related to the question and does not deviate from the topic. By reading it, it is easier to understand the reasons and not delve into unnecessary aspects.\nSo even though both the answers are good, Answer B is more focused hence I chose it."}
{"question":"With seemingly half of downtown Manhatten's commercial real estate being vacant, why do real estate agents prefer having a venue vacant over just lowering prices? I'm not a U.S. citizen, but the whole thing going on on [Louis Rossman's YouTube Channel](https:\/\/www.youtube.com\/watch?v=wpC4IGAkgok) (who runs the Right to Repair movement, but also makes video about the ridiculousness of New York real estate) intrigues me. <br \/>You see hundreds upon hundreds vacant stores 'for rent', while they still ask the same ridiculous prices (up to $55,000 a month for a store). Rossman has seen stores that have been vacant and for rent for literally over 5 years, while te price stays the same. <br \/>What do real estate brokers gain from this? Do they just hope that \\*someone\\* jumps the boat and deny that prices are too high? Enlighten me :)","answer_a":"a lot of it is investment for speculation. Rich people want to own and trade buildings like stocks, they don't want to be landlords or property owners. They plan to hold it for 10 years and sell it for 87 million dollars more than they bought it for and just would rather not deal with the hassle of doing a bunch of stuff to get 800 dollars a month in rent.","answer_b":"if you ask for a lower rent, then the valuation for your property drops since that is typically tied to the rent. obviously it should drop anyway, but that happens more slowly and especially if the building was bought on credit or the building itself is collateral for a credit, they sometimes cant afford to have the value drop.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was tough for me to choose between both the Answers because I am not very familiar with the topic. I also searched on google but did not find any relevant links.\nBut after pondering over this for quite a bit, I am going with the assumption that this question pertains more to rich people because we are talking about 'Manhattan's commercial real estate' and not residential real estate. \nCommercial real estate and that too in an area like Manhattan would be owned by rich folks. And they can afford to keep their properties vacant instead of dealing with renting, while normal folks would rather rent or sell at a lower value than see no income stream from their property at all.\nHence Answer A is more contextually close to this question.\nBoth the answers should start with a capital letter. Answer B lacks capitalization throughout."}
{"question":"How the tax rates are determined by governments? I would assume that governments estimate the amount of extra money they need to finance public healthcare, pensions, infrastructure improvements, etc. They make the projection for the coming years, add some safety gap on top and then calculate the tax rate based on this required amount of extra income. Is that true?<br \/>If so, such calculation leads us to a flat tax rate. If we are talking about a progressive tax, how are the decisions about tax bands and rates for each band made?","answer_a":"Governments use a variety of methods to determine tax rates. In some cases, rates are set based on the amount of money the government needs to raise to fund specific programs or initiatives. In other cases, tax rates may be based on a percentage of income, with higher earners paying a higher rate. Additionally, some governments use a progressive tax system, in which tax rates increase as income increases.","answer_b":"You'd be wrong.<br \/>The legislature gets input from economic calculations, in the US from the Congressional Budget Office, but more often than not the numbers are chosen to send political messages.<br \/>There are very, very few flat tax systems.  Almost all systems are extremely progressive, what's the point of collecting taxes from some poor person who you make social safety net payments to?  That would just be government using taxes to collect its own money.  Tax bands are set politically, trading off the influence of the rich with the influence of the anti-rich.  (poor \u2260 anti-rich)  Poor people have little money; whereas anti-rich people don't want other people to have as much money as they already have.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I thought a lot about this question and I have finally come to the conclusion that Answer A is the better answer.\nAlthough it does not really address the first part of the question where the person wants to know if they are correct about their assumption or not, it still explains the question in a piece of factually correct information while both the parts of the query- how tax rates are set and what how decisions are made on tax bands under progressive taxation system. \nAnswer B deviates a lot from the question and contains irrelevant information and some misconceptions as well. The question was asked from an economic point of view and not what one person thinks about how tax works. Answer B fails to fulfill that.\nHence Answer A is a better choice."}
{"question":"I keep hearing that 20% of all US dollars were printed in the last year, so why isn\u2019t the inflation rate 20%? ","answer_a":"Are they referring to actual printed money? If so, I\u2019m sure quite a bit of currency was withdrawn from circulation, as well.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why the inflation rate is not 20% despite the fact that 20% of all US dollars were printed in the last year. First, it takes time for new money to enter the economy and start circulating. Second, not all of the new money will end up being used to purchase goods and services; some of it may be saved or used to pay off debt, for example. Finally, the inflation rate is calculated using a basket of goods and services, so it may not reflect the impact of new money on the prices of specific goods and services.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is by far a much better answer.\nAnswer A is doubtful about what the exact question is and also gives an uncertain assumption that \"quite a bit of currency was withdrawn from circulation, as well\" without explaining why and how that is true.\nAnswer B breaks down the answer into 3 different reasons and gives factually correct information. It explains how new money being printed doesn't mean it is all in circulation and also gives the reasons behind it, which Answer A lacks."}
{"question":". What stops a 1000 dollar check made out to cash from being used as a 1000 dollar bill. A bit confusing but what I mean by this is say, a guy writes a 1000 dollar check (made out to cash)to buy a quad. The guy receiving the check, instead of cashing it out, uses the original check to then go buy his own quad and so on.","answer_a":"Because checks are not legal tender. They are an IOU to be deposited from one account to another, and are therefore mere debit checks, hence the name. <br \/>You have to use legal tender provided by the Treasury as cash.","answer_b":"The risk of the check bouncing stops that. <br \/>Someone wants to pay you with cash?  Great - now you have cash!  <br \/>Someone wants to pay you with a check made out to cash, which was written on the account of some other third guy that you never heard of?  Riiiiiight - your immediate first thought is going to be \"well that's *clearly* a scam of some kind\", even if it really is legit.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was hard to choose between both the answers because I was unable to understand the question itself. \nBecause I could not understand the question, I was not able to understand which would have been a correct answer, Answer A just seemed more to the point. \nI also tried to search this on google but did not find anything that could actually explain this whole thing to me."}
{"question":"How are countries in billions of dollars in debt? Who do they owe? I\u2019ve never really understood this. Do all these countries borrow money from each other back and forth? Tf is going on?","answer_a":"Most debt is in the form of treasury bonds, which are essentially IOU's from the government in question. Basically, the government sells a bond to someone, and after a set amount of time that bond can be redeemed for it's face value, and with interest. The functional value of a bond is built entirely on the value of the government (or company) that backs the bond; if that government is perceived as stable, then the bond retains value, because there's a perception that the bond will be paid when it comes due.<br \/>In turn, bonds are an investment. They're, generally, slightly better than cash, entirely because bonds grow in face value over time, whereas cash does not.","answer_b":"Yes they do. Example is America borrowing from China. What happens is America issues bonds. When someone purchases a bond they are essentially lending there money for a specified amount of time. (In bond language it\u2019s called a term). Once the term of the bond is fulfilled America conducts another bond offering (lending more money ) in order to pay down some of the debt with the proceeds it collects from a bond sale. It\u2019s called rolling over the debt. It\u2019s a continuous cycle that America will never get out of.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is better because it answers the question in terms of all the countries by explaining bonds, while Answer B only gives the example of America. It also does not answer both the parts of the question about how countries are in debt and who they owe. \nEven Answer A does not answer the second part of the question but at least it explains other terms in detail to understand the concept a little better. Although Answer A should have been formed in a more crisp and clear manner, it was still better than Answer B."}
{"question":"Why do some countries measure their currencies in large units? For example in Vietnam, lunch can be bought for 50,000 VD and in South Korea, apartments can cost several MILLION Won. Why do some countries use such large denominations?","answer_a":"It is actually the inflation's side effect.<br \/>The money worth less than the paper they paint it on. So, they use a higher number.<br \/>You can see how it begins (again) in Turkish Lira. In 2007, Turkey removed 6 zeroes from the money (ie 10 million TLs become 10 TLs). The $\/TL was something like 1.20.<br \/>Now, $\/TL is 8.65. TL loses it's worth. <br \/>To somewhat counter that, countries issue higher bills. So that the minimum wages can keep up against the inflation and people can afford basic stuff like electricity bills and such.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why some countries might choose to measure their currency in large units. One reason is that it can help to combat inflation. When prices are rising rapidly, it can be difficult to keep track of the value of goods and services if the currency is divided into small units. It can also be difficult to make change for small purchases. If the currency is measured in larger units, it can be easier for people to keep track of the value of goods and services and to make change. Another reason for using large units of currency is that it can make transactions more efficient. For example, if you are buying a car for $1,000, it is more efficient to pay in one $1,000 bill than to pay in ten $100 bills. Finally, large units of currency can also make it easier to track money laundering and other illicit financial activities. If all transactions are conducted in large units of currency, it can be easier to track the flow of money and to identify suspicious activity.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I was not familiar a lot with this topic so I gathered some information from the internet and got some idea from this link as well (https:\/\/world101.cfr.org\/global-era-issues\/monetary-policy-and-currencies\/understanding-currencies-and-exchange-rates), hence I decided that Answer B was better than Answer A. \nAlthough both the answers explain the question in terms of inflation, which is the main point, Answer A only gives the reason to be 'inflation' without telling the 'why' behind it and just giving another country's example.\nWhile Answer B explained it with various reasons and also answered the second aprt of the question - 'Why do some countries use such large denominations?'."}
{"question":"why do some currencies have an incredibly large number for such a small value of money? For example, 10,000 S.Korean Won is about \u00a36.20.  So isn't it impractical that 1 won is a tiny fraction of a penny and basically has no value?","answer_a":"I\u2019m guessing you\u2019ve been watching \u201csquid game\u201d and googled the amount of money the players were set to earn at the end and throughout the series\u2026\ud83d\ude05 bcz I did the same if that\u2019s the reason!","answer_b":"Two reasons. Their currency is based on the smallest unit so a Korean Won would be like a US penny. And because their currency has less value so you need more of it to reach an equivalent value of a stronger currency.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A does not answer the question at all but contains a counter question regarding a Netflix show which might or might not be related to the Question. Hence, it contains irrelevant aspects that don't help in answering the question at all.\nHowever, Answer B compares both currencies and answers the question to some extent. Although it still does not contain all the factors that decide the value of a currency, like supply and demand, the country\u2019s attractiveness to investors, the economic situation of a country, etc (https:\/\/world101.cfr.org\/global-era-issues\/monetary-policy-and-currencies\/understanding-currencies-and-exchange-rates) as explained in detail in this article. But I would still prefer Answer B much more than Answer A."}
{"question":"Why can't Jeff Bezos or the top 5 richest simply end world hunger or homelessness? I've started to wonder this more and more. A guy like. Bezos could end hunger or give everyone who is homeless a place to start, but doesn't. Why is that? It seems so simple to do","answer_a":"There are a number of reasons why the world's richest people cannot simply end hunger or homelessness. First, hunger and homelessness are complex problems that require more than just financial resources to solve. Addressing hunger and homelessness requires a coordinated effort from governments, NGOs, and private individuals and organizations. Second, even if the world's richest people were to donate all of their wealth to ending hunger and homelessness, it would not be enough. The scale of the problem is simply too large. It is estimated that it would cost $30 billion per year to end hunger, and $20 billion per year to end homelessness. Third, the world's richest people are not all philanthropists. Some may be reluctant to donate their wealth to causes like ending hunger and homelessness, because they do not believe that these problems can be solved, or because they do not think it is their responsibility to solve them.","answer_b":"He doesn't have enough money, not nearly enough.<br \/>700M people live is World Bank \"extreme poverty\", less than $2 per day in total income.  This was 2B people in 1990.<br \/>To be only \"poor\" you need $48 per day in income.  That's $33.6B per day.  Jeff Bezos has $200B, so his entire fortune would be spent in 6 days.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better choice because it not only explains why Jeff Bezos can not end poverty but also the broader question that why it is not so easy for rich people to end poverty or homelessness.\nAnswer B only tells why Jeff Bezos in particular can not help poor people, but it does not actually answer the whole question.\nAnswer A explains various aspects which involve not just rich people but also the duty of government, NGOs, etc to help the poor, while Answer B only explains it through data and that too from the 1990s."}
{"question":"What is a mutual fund and how does it work? ","answer_a":"You\u2019ll probably get a better answer, but basically someone invests all of the money paid in to it and you share all the gains and losses together. So you will almost always slowly grow over time. Probably pretty in line with what ever the overall market grew.","answer_b":"A mutual fund is like carpooling but for investments. <br \/>Instead of you buying and selling your individual shares of companies directly on the exchange, you buy \"units\" of the mutual fund. The managers of the fund (investment experts... usually... hopefully) pool all of the money from individual investors (you) and use it to buy\/invest in the stocks. Any gains that the fund makes through regular \"buy low,sell high\" or dividends are split back to the individual fund investors (you) in proportion of units held. <br \/>The fund managers will charge a small amount for their \"expertise\" but otherwise just invest and manage according to the mutual fund's portfolio mandate. Like for example, some funds invest purely in R&D, others only in tech or wireless communication, others in green energy etc.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B explains the whole question more in detail. \nAnswer A only comprises what a Mutual fund is but does not explain how it works.\nAnswer B explains mutual fund w.r.t the concepts related to it, such as 'units', fund managers, dividends, and portfolio. Answer A does not explain these terms. B also explains how mutual funds work and not just its definition. Although Answer B could be more coherent than it is, as it contains more periods and brackets than necessary, it still explains what the question demands so it is clearly the better choice.\n\n"}
{"question":"why do countries with a fiat currency still use tax? Considering that fiat money isn\u2019t tied to anything tangible, it doesn\u2019t seem to make sense having to tax? Is it that the only purpose of tax today is redistribution of wealth?","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why countries with a fiat currency still use tax. First, tax revenue is one of the main ways that governments fund public goods and services. Without tax revenue, governments would have to rely on other sources of funding, which might not be as stable or reliable. Second, tax helps to reduce income inequality by redistributing wealth from the rich to the poor. This is especially important in countries with a large income gap between the rich and the poor. Finally, tax can be used to discourage certain activities that are harmful to the economy or society, such as smoking or pollution.","answer_b":"How would governments pay for social services?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is clearly and by far the better choice. Answer B is just a counter question in the form of an answer which is not the correct way to respond to a question, nor does it cover all the aspects of the question, especially the last part \" Is it that the only purpose of tax today is redistribution of wealth?\"\nAnswer A covers all 3 parts of the question and explains the reason behind why it's necessary for the government to collect taxes and not just for wealth redistribution. I also cross-checked this info on google and it stands true (https:\/\/www.investopedia.com\/terms\/t\/taxes.asp). "}
{"question":"Would burning money help with the inflation problem in Venezuela for example? ","answer_a":"No.<br \/>Paper money is a tiny fraction of the actual money.  Most money is just numbers in bank accounts.","answer_b":"Hyper inflation occurs when people, lenders, foreign companies e.t.c lose confidence in the currency. <br \/>If I'm a shop owner and I usually sell an apple for 1 coin. However I'm not convinced in a month I'll be able to buy myself enough food\/pay rent e.t.c by selling apples for 1 coin. So I raise my prices today to protect myself against currency changes in the future. This of course spirals out of control because everyone starts doing this.<br \/>Because the value is changing fast, there is no point saving money, so everyone tries to spend all their money at once before it's value is rapidly eroded to zero. Often money will be spent the same day it is earned - and everyone spending every penny every day pushes up prices more and the cycle continues. <br \/>The only way to fix the issue is to make people trust the currency again. This is usually done by adopting a stable foreign currency or pegging your currency to a foreign currency. (Brazil effectively stopped hyperinflation).","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This question was pretty straightforward and wanted to know if burning money would help Venezuelan Inflation.\nAnswer A covers that very aspect of the question.\nAnswer B contains way too many details that did not need to be covered. It was also difficult to follow. I had to google it to understand that Venezuala is actually going through 'hyperinflation' since it's not mentioned clearly in Answer B (https:\/\/www.bruegel.org\/blog-post\/venezuelas-hyperinflation). \nBut anyway, since Answer B covered multiple aspects that were not enquired about, I choose Answer A."}
{"question":"How do credit\/debit cards work? What is the process of putting money in and getting it out? ","answer_a":"A credit or debit card is basically just an easy way to allow a shop to speak to your bank.<br \/>First you go into the bank, and you either deposit some cash into your account (debit), or you ask the bank nicely to cover you, and promise that you will pay them back at the end of the month (credit).<br \/>Then you can go shopping. You get to the till with your products, which you now need to pay for, but instead of handing over cash directly, you ask the shop to deal directly with your bank. The shop phones up the bank and asks them to take X amount of money out of your account, then nip over to the shops own bank and give it to them on your behalf, which they do.<br \/>That is pretty much how a credit or debit card works, just automated with computers...","answer_b":"Debit cards are linked to a bank account and whenever you pay using a debit card, the amount is deducted from the bank account on completion of the transaction. So, instead of withdrawing and handing over cash for a purchase, you can swipe the card.<br \/>Credit cards come with a credit limit and a defined billing cycle (generally monthly). So, you can make purchases using the credit card upto the defined credit limit. The bill is generated as per the defined billing cycle and you are required to settle it just like the bills for any other utilities.<br \/>Hope this helps.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Although both the Answers are easy to follow and Answer B would have been my first pick because it answers the question in a more concise manner, it did not answer both parts of the question. Answer A covered both the parts, How debit and credit cards work and how money is put in and out. Answer B contains only the first part of the question.\nBoth the Answer are factually and grammatically correct and easy to follow but because of the reason explained earlier, I have chosen Answer A."}
{"question":"There is all this talk about global USD shortage despite trillions that were printed in the last 2 years, what gives? ","answer_a":"If you go back in time prior to 1990 most of the world's debt is denominated in the local currency of the country where the debt was made.  So if I'm an Indian oil refiner and I want to get a loan to build a new plant, I go to a bank and get a loan that I have to pay back in Indian Rupees.  Similarly, if I'm the government of Vietnam and I want to get a loan to build a new highway, I'll go to a bank and get a loan that needs to be paid back in Vietnamese Dong (no they're not cutting people's penises off, that's what the currency there is called).<br \/>The problem with this is that most of the loans that are being made to countries outside of the US\/EU\/Japan are being made by the US\/EU\/Japan.  Countries outside of that area are also incredibly corrupt.  So what happens when the Vietnamese government can't afford to pay back its loan?  It prints a shitload of Dong and uses the freshly printed currency to pay off its debt.  Because of how many Dong have been printed to satisfy this debt, the value of the Dong collapses and the lender is left with a pile of worthless currency.<br \/>The solution that lenders in the US\/EU\/Japan came up with for this problem was to make it so that borrowers outside of those regions have to pay back their loans in dollars.  Now it doesn't matter how much the Vietnamese government devalues its currency - it still has to pay back the same amount of dollars.  <br \/>Most corporate\/national debt is made in the form of 20 or 30 year bonds.  In a 20 year bond you make a small interest payment each year.  Then, at the end of the 20 years, you pay back *the entirety of what you were initially loaned*.  <br \/>So imagine you take a $100 loan, paid back over 20 years with an interest rate of 1%.  Each year you pay the lender $1 (1% of $100).  Then on year 20 you pay $101 (the original $100 value of the loan plus your final interest payment).  That means that to make your debt payment for year 20, you need 101 times as many dollars as you did to make your payment in year 19.<br \/>Right now all of the early dollar denominated loans to the third world are starting the hit that point where the borrowers need to make that big, final payment.  That's causing a sudden surge in the need for companies and governments to get dollars.  <br \/>You can view the China Evergrande situation as being a direct result of this.  Evergrande needs to make the final payment on a lot of its 20\/30 year bonds right now.  It has physical assets with a sufficient value to do this (it owns a lot of land and buildings).  The problem is it can't hand the buildings to its creditors because of Chinese government restrictions on foreign land ownership.  It needs to sell the buildings to get dollars to pay off its loans.  But it needs so many dollars so quickly that its hard to find people that have that many dollars at once.","answer_b":"There are a few different factors at play here. First, the US dollar is still considered the global reserve currency, meaning that it is used more than any other currency for international transactions. This means that demand for dollars is always high, even when there is a lot of them in circulation.<br \/><br \/>Second, the trillions of dollars that were printed in the last two years were mostly used to bail out banks and other financial institutions. This money never actually made it into the hands of consumers, so it didn't really increase the overall money supply.<br \/><br \/>Lastly, the global economy is still recovering from the last recession, and many countries are still dealing with high levels of debt. This means that there is less demand for USD-denominated assets, and that the dollar is under more pressure than it has been in recent years.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was not hard to choose Answer B over Answer A. Answer A is hard to follow and understand. It talks more in terms of other currencies than USD, for which the question was asked. By the end of Answer A, I was confused about the question itself.\nAnswer B is easier to follow, is grammatically coherent, and answers the question in 3 basic points, and that too in with respect to USD itself.\nAnswer A also contains a lot of irrelevant information such as \"If you go back in time prior to 1990 most of the world's debt is denominated in the local currency of the country where the debt was made. So if I'm an Indian oil refiner and I want to get a loan to build a new plant, I go to a bank and get a loan that I have to pay back in Indian Rupees. Similarly, if I'm the government of Vietnam and I want to get a loan to build a new highway, I'll go to a bank and get a loan that needs to be paid back in Vietnamese Dong (no they're not cutting people's penises off, that's what the currency there is called).\" This paragraph was unnecessary and it deviates from the main question."}
{"question":"How devaluing your currency increases exports. ","answer_a":"You're Germany and exporting BMW's. A \u20ac40k car costs $50k in the US because a Euro is worth $1.25.<br \/>Euro is devalued so that \u20ac1 is $1. Now, that same \u20ac40K BMW only costs $40k in the US. Demand for a $40k BMW will be higher than the demand for the same car if it costs $50k. So there will be more demand for BMW exports. German workers still make same wages, (European) suppliers still get same money for parts, etc. but the factory will need to crank out more cars to keep up with increased demand.","answer_b":"Devaluing your currency makes your exports cheaper relative to other countries' exports. This increases demand for your exports, and can help your country's trade balance.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is much better than Answer A by all means. Initially, I thought Answer A was on to something with the example, but it never goes on to explain what the question actually asked and keeps the reader confused. While Answer B answers each aspect of the question in a clear and crisp manner which is easy to understand even for a layman.\nAnswer A is very confusing to follow, while Answer B is very easy to follow because it is short and gets right into context."}
{"question":"Why do we even have a debt ceiling if we just raise it every time we get close? ","answer_a":"If you want the US govt to go into default and not pay its bills then don\u2019t raise debt ceiling. If you want govt to continue paying its obligations then vote for it. Clinton was last potus to balance a budget and Nixon was last gop potus to balance a budget. Congress and every other potus is responsible for our debt.","answer_b":"The debt ceiling is a limit on how much money the federal government can borrow. It was put in place to help control government spending. Every time the government reaches the debt ceiling, Congress has to vote to raise it. Some people think that the debt ceiling is unnecessary and that we should just get rid of it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is talking about unnecessary things and taking the question out of context by talking about several US Presidents. It is also answering the question in the terms of if you should vote for or against the Debt Ceiling, which is not the correct question that was asked. Answer B is somewhat better than Answer A but still not the best. It talks about the 'When' government raises the debt ceiling but not the 'why' it is raised. \nUpon google search I came across this page which answers the question in a more clear manner \" When the debt ceiling is reached, the Treasury Department must find other ways to pay expenses. Otherwise, there is a risk the U.S. will default on its debt.\" (https:\/\/www.investopedia.com\/terms\/d\/debt-ceiling.asp).\nHence, neither of the answers are sufficient but Answer B is still better. "}
{"question":"HOW does a Crypto coin's value go below its starting price? ","answer_a":"Money of any kind has no intrinsic value. There\u2019s no purpose for it except to be exchanged for something else<br \/>Therefore the value is based on how much exchange you believe you can do with it. So the value of it is just a measure of how much a group of people believe it is worth","answer_b":"There is no starting price. Cryptocurrency is worth what people that are willing to purchase it think it is worth.  There is no intrinsic value in cryptocurency.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was hard to choose between A and B because both the answers are pretty unclear. But B is still better because Answer A explains it out of context and also under false assumptions that money has no intrinsic value. In today's day and age when financial markets are clearly defined, money and currency, in general, hold a clear value. Answer B is also not great because I read multiple answers including this (https:\/\/www.stilt.com\/blog\/2021\/07\/how-does-cryptocurrency-gain-value\/) and in my opinion, the value of cryptocurrency should have been explained in the terms of supply and demand.\n\"Cryptocurrency is worth what people that are willing to purchase it think it is worth.\" does not answer the question well.\n"}
{"question":"What are toll roads or \"turnpikes\" used for? Where does the money collected by toll roads go and what is it used for exactly, entering a new country is understanderble but they have toll roads on highways where there is no border so what is the purpose of these stops which take unnecessary fees??","answer_a":"There is a toll road near my house. It was built by a private company on private land. It represents a significant short-cut between two state-built roads. The company built the road, and collects tolls for its use, in an effort to make money.<br \/>So, in this case, the toll goes to repay the initial investment to acquire the land and build the road. It also goes toward providing snow removal, maintenance, and repair.","answer_b":"The money from the tolls usually goes towards maintaining the road, and\/or is like a travel tax that the state can use for other projects. Sometimes tolls are only there to cover the cost of constructing the road and then once it's paid off they take the toll off (that's less common though).","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It wasn't very tough to choose Answer B over Answer A. Answer A explains only a single use case of the use of tolls while the question demands a broader answer which is mentioned in Answer B. But Answer B does not mention why these 'turnpikes are used, so it's not a complete answer but still better than A. Neither of these answers have grammatical errors and are easy to follow. But Answer A contains irrelevant information as it cites only a single example of a toll which is unnecessary in this context. Hence, considering all the aspects, Answer B is a better choice."}
{"question":"How do people get money from Crypto and what does burning mean? Also - how the hell did people invest in Bitcoin back in the day?","answer_a":"Burning is when you put enough energy into a material and it starts combusting with the oxygen around it emitting radiation. <br \/>Example : when you light a piece of paper it starts *burning*","answer_b":"Burning is when you send a crypto token to a wallet that does not have an access key. Without the key, no one can access the token and is lost. It's like burning money.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is better than Answer A. Answer A is completely out of context. I also searched on Google to cross-check Answer B which seems accurate.\nBut the issue is that even Answer B does not contain all the aspects of the question. It only answers one part of the question i.e. \"What does Burn mean in Crypto\" but it does not answer the other two parts about what crypto is and how people invested in Bitcoin in the past.\n So although Answer B is much better than Answer A, it is still not good enough."}
{"question":". How can some companies (Amazon, Steam, Dropbox etc...) send TERABITS of data over internet while the normal user is in MEGABITS. ","answer_a":"You only have 1 internet connection, and it's most likely running over copper wires. Copper has quality issues over longer distances.<br \/>These big companies have many many internet connections all over the world made of fiber optic cables which can transmit data for miles with no significant signal degradation. Speeds of 10 or even 100 gigabits (1 gigabit = 1,000 megabits) are very common on these lines.<br \/>And I do need to point out, these companies don't have all their stuff in one place, much less one country. For example if you go into Steam's settings you can in and select where you want your download to be done from. Steam has machines in all these locations, and those \"terabits\" are each location added up together. Steam's servers in Washington couldn't provide for the whole world's game download needs by themselves, but if everyone selects a location fairly close by (or the system makes reasonable guesses and auto-assigns locations) each location can be more reasonably sized.<br \/>So, yeah, totally doable.","answer_b":"TL;DR because they have money.<br \/>The cables and other equipment operated by your ISP are mostly physically capable of terabit speeds. Possibly the \"last mile\" connection (the cables that link your house to the rest of the street) aren't quite as capable, but more than what you're getting. Your speed is limited to megabits because you're one of many customers renting a fraction of the that total available bandwidth.<br \/>Companies can afford to rent a much bigger portion of that available bandwidth, rent a dedicated physical line, or have the resources to build their own infrastructure.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"I actually liked both Answer A and Answer B, but I particularly appreciated the direct-to-the-point and relevant response of Answer B compared to the lengthy and assumption-filled response of Answer A. \n\nOne thing that I didn't like with Answer A is its numerous assumptions that don't reflect the actual situations in the real-world. For example, the first part of its first sentence \"You only have 1 internet connection\". It is so vague on what is meant by \"1 internet connection\" and it is not really a basis over the amount of data that you can transmit over the internet as a normal user. Also, in today's technology, there are already a lot of ISPs (Internet Service Providers) who offer 1Gbps speed even to normal residential users which is unheard of in the past. Although it is not in the level of Terabits, a Gbps speed should be enough for a 'normal' user. \n\nAnother wrong assumption made by Answer A is that \"it's most likely running over copper wires\". Again, this factor is not indicative of internet speed. It is undeniable that copper wires have issues on longer distances and electronic interference, however, it is not the reason why you will have only Mbps in speed. In fact, there are articles that say that even copper-wire connection can even reach to Gbps level. (Reference:https:\/\/www.lsnetworks.net\/fiber-optic-vs-copper-what-should-you-choose-for-your-business\/#:~:text=On%20average%2C%20a%20copper%2Dbased,of%20up%20to%2010%20Gbps.). Also, it was wrong to assume that normal users are limited to only using copper-wire internet connection. That is simply not true in today's technology. Depending on availability in a specific city or country, ISPs now offer fiber optic internet connection even to residential or 'normal' users, not just to big companies. In summary, the reasons provided by Answer A aren't really the actual reasons why there is a limited internet speed  to 'normal' users (although the writer of the question does not specifically define what normal user means). To be fair, the statements of Answer A that refers to the advantage of fiber optic cables (no signal degradation and better speed) are all factual and accurate, depending on the ISP and internet connection plan involved. \n\nIn the next part of Answer A, it mentioned that large companies (like Amazon, Steam and Dropbox) are using multiple locations to handle their large volumes of data as mentioned in \"Steam has machines in all these locations...\". The statements are actually facts and indeed, most of the largest companies around the world use multiple datacenters in multiple locations in order to cater to their clients\/users. However, this is not really exactly relevant to the question about the companies' internet consumption. Any company (even smaller ones) can have multiple datacenters and yet not consume TERABITS of data. Having multiple locations does not mean that you will have access to that amount of internet speed or consumption. \n\nAnswer B is much more simple and easy to understand than Answer A. I really liked that it directly answered the question by saying that \"because they have money\". Crude as it may sound, but it is the actual reason why some companies (and probably some lucky individuals) are able to afford a higher than average Internet speed. In the second part of Answer B, it explained that, depending on the ISP, cables and other equipment that are available to normal users are actually capable of higher speeds (as I have also mentioned on my analysis of Answer A). The only reason why normal users have limitations on their speed is because the actual line is shared with other customers as indicated on '...because you're one of many customers renting a fraction...'\n\nAnswer B summarized its statements with the last paragraph \"Companies can afford to rent a much bigger portion...\". This is the perfect answer to the question. The main reason why large companies like Amazon, Steam, etc. are able to send\/receive TERABITS of data over the internet is because they have the money to afford better internet services as stated on \"...afford to rent a much bigger portion...\". All these statements are factual and reflects the actual situation for most corporate internet connections. \n\nAnswer B can be improved by removing some phrases such as the 'TL;DR' at the beginning and the '..but more than what you're getting...\" in the middle of the paragraph. "}
{"question":"Why is a pc download size and a console dowoad size different for the same game? ","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why a PC download size might be different than a console download size for the same game. One reason is that the PC version of a game might be more graphically demanding than the console version, and thus require more data to be downloaded. Another reason is that the PC version of a game might include more content than the console version - for example, extra levels, bonus features, etc. Finally, it's also possible that the PC version of a game is simply a higher-quality version than the console version, and thus requires more data to be downloaded.","answer_b":"Primarily because of the varying settings. All xboxes or all ps5s or whatever console are all fairly uniform in every part of their hardware except maybe overall harddrive space. They process things all the same way so there's no need to account for variance. PCs vary so much in processing power and capabilities that you'd more likely have trouble finding two that are exactly the same. <br \/>The game producers have to account for this by creating a game that looks nice enough that it doesn't appear to be outdated, but keep requirements low enough that users with lower end PCs can still run them even if they have to change the graphics settings to do so. If they don't do this then they run the risk of alienating one group or the other and missing out on potential profit","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and Answer B have given relevant responses to the question, however, Answer B is a bit confusing compared to the well-structured response of Answer A.\n\nAnswer B is already quite confusing starting from its first statement \"...Primarily because of the varying settings.\" My first thought was to ask why would settings dictate the download size for PC and consoles. However, Answer B did clarify this statement on its succeeding statements, mentioning that PCs and consoles have varied hardware and processing capabilities as stated in \"...PCs vary so much in processing power...\". I do agree with these statements, and they are actually factual, however, it is not a clear reason why there would be a difference in the PC and console versions of the same game. I do think that Answer B has a point in saying that game producers have to account for the gap between the capacities of PCs and consoles but the way the answer was constructed was confusing and not well-structured.\n\nThe second paragraph of Answer B is even more confusing than the first paragraph, and it felt as if the two sections don't even match each other. In the first paragraph, Answer B stated that there is a difference between the capabilities of PCs and consoles but this was not elaborated on the second paragraph. Instead of directly stating that perhaps PC games have  a higher download size than console download size, the paragraph moved to another focus by talking about \"keep requirements low enough...\". There was no definite answer nor conclusion to the statements given in Answer B. \n\nAnother thing that I didn't like on Answer B is the assumption made on the second sentence \"All xboxes or all ps5s...are all fairly uniform...\". This is definitely not factual particularly for consoles with different developers\/manufacturers. It is incorrect to assume that the settings for ALL consoles is the same for ALL games.  \n\nCompared to Answer B, Answer A has presented a more structured explanation of the answer by listing down a number of reasons as to why PC download size might be different than the console download size. The reasons enumerated are all factual and realistic. They were also explained in a simple and clear way. I do agree on the first reason that PC versions have more graphical capabilities (\"graphically demanding...\") than console versions resulting to more than double the file size of the game. I was researching games for the Nintendo Switch and PC games (Reference: https:\/\/www.thegamer.com\/nintendo-switch-games-biggest-file-size-gb\/ and https:\/\/gamerant.com\/pc-games-file-size-hd-space-biggest-huge\/) and it was fairly obvious about their gap. This reason can be improved by rephrasing it as \"One reason is that the PC version of a game can handle highly-detailed graphics and effects than the console version, thus requiring more data to be downloaded.\"\n\nThe second reason \"PC version of a game might include more content...\" is bit of 50\/50 however. Although PC versions of games do have more flexibility in terms of additional content, we cannot discount the fact that even console games have extra DLC (Downloadable Content) although not on the same size as PC ones. The second reason can be rephrased as \"Another reason is that the PC version of a game has more flexibility in terms of additional content compared to the console version. Downloadable content such as extra levels, bonus features and PC-only events usually have a higher download size as compared to console ones.\"\n\nThe third reason is quite subjective \"PC version of a game is simply a higher-quality version than the console version\". There is no proof or evidence to conclude that PC versions are better than the console ones, it is a question depending on the preferences of the user\/gamer. As part of improving Answer A, this third reason should be removed. \n\nIn summary, both Answer A and Answer B provided valuable insights about the difference between the download size of PC and console versions of the same game. From research, PC games do have the highest download size, followed by console and then by mobile games. The main reason for this difference in download size is that PC games can afford to have more graphics\/effects compared to console games. And Answer A has explained this effectively. "}
{"question":"Does older computer affect performance? Like a computer that i have use for 5 years","answer_a":"Yes, an older computer can affect performance. For example, an older computer may have a slower processor, less memory, and a smaller hard drive, which can all lead to reduced performance. Additionally, over time, an older computer can accumulate dust and other debris, which can also impede performance.","answer_b":"An older computer is less powerful than devices sold today. Applications and websites grow in size all the time, and may not run well on older machines.<br \/>An old installation of software may suffer from disk fragmentation (on true magnetic disks) and increased size of the registry or other configuration files. This gets worse if software gets installed and uninstalled often, and the temporary files are not separated on their own partition. A noticeable speedup can be gained by reinstalling then operating system, and adding only required applications and drivers with minimal features.<br \/>As long as the computer works without errors, its actual performance will not degrade. But we usually demand more of it.<br \/>It is possible for parts to be damaged by heat if the computer is really dirty, but the effects would then be quite prominent, such as the machine shutting down, fans spinning extremely fast, or the speed throttling down a few times.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and Answer B provided sufficient factual answers to the question. However, the  explanation provided with Answer A is much simpler and easier to understand. \n\nAnswer B started its explanation by comparing older computers with newer devices through the statement 'An older computer is less powerful...'. This immediately establishes the premise that older computers might not be able to keep up with the growth of applications and websites \"Applications and websites grow...\". These statements are factual and reflect the actual situation in the real-world use of computers. \n\nHowever, the facts mentioned in the first paragraph of Answer B was not supplemented by the second paragraph. Suddenly, Answer B shifted its focus on software, particularly \"old installation of software...\". In re-reading the question \"Does older computer affect performance? Like a computer that i have use for 5 years\", it can be inferred that the question is referring to an old machine\/device, rather than the software inside it. That is why, in my opinion, the whole second paragraph is irrelevant and strays away from the real purpose of the question. It was unnecessary to discuss about the reasons for disk fragmentation, reinstalling of OS, etc. because the question pertains to a more generalized performance issue when it comes to older computers. \n\nThe third paragraph of Answer B is vague and misleading, and can be considered as an assumption. It is incorrect to say that \"As long as the computer works without errors, its actual performance will not degrade\". And even though Answer B follows it up with a disclaimer of \"But we usually demand more of it.\" it might give readers an impression that older computers will not have a degraded performance if you don't demand more of it. Which is not true. Regardless whether you demand less or more of it, an old computer\/device will experience performance reduction in its latter years. Experts and references (https:\/\/www.bustle.com\/p\/when-is-it-time-to-buy-a-new-computer-these-are-the-tell-tale-signs-you-need-to-say-goodbye-6457626) say that most computers\/laptops have a lifespan of 3-5 years and during these years, performance will slowly degrade. This means that computers, no matter how you use or maintain them, have a finite lifespan. \n\nThe last paragraph of Answer B talks about heat damage \"It is possible for parts to be damaged by heat\". Although it was not phrased nor introduced properly, overheating issue is actually one of the signs that a computer is near its end of lifespan. Most older computers accumulate dust\/dirt over time and this can affect the performance of its hardware. Also, older computers cannot usually handle CPU-intensive applications and when it attempts to run them, it causes the computer to heat up faster. Answer B would have been better if it just skipped the second paragraph and instead, focused on the hardware issues that might affect the performance of an older computer. \n\nI chose Answer A as the better answer primarily because it was simple, direct-to-the-point, well-constructed and easy to understand compared to Answer B. The first statement of Answer A directly responded to the question by \"Yes, an older computer can affect performance.\" The statement is factual and based on realistic situations. It is true that older computers, particularly 5-year or more ones (as indicated in the question), have degraded performance and will not be able to be up to par with the latest devices. \n\nCompared with Answer B's shifting focus on multiple topics, Answer A provided examples that will support its first statement. The statement \"For example, an older computer may have a slower processor, less memory,...\" emphasizes the point of the first sentence. The slower hardware of most older computers automatically translates to a reduced performance particularly when running new applications. Contrary to Answer B's \"As long as the computer works without errors, its actual performance will not degrade\", Answer A has pointed out that the lower specifications of older computers will eventually lead to reduced performance. These statements are true and factual because even if you have a perfectly fine 5-year old computer, it will not be able to run the latest operating systems or applications, because its hardware components are just incompatible with the requirements of new software. Answer A also mentioned about overheating issues caused by dust and debris \"...an older computer can accumulate dust and other debris...\" which is the same fact as the one stated in Answer B \"It is possible for parts to be damaged by heat...\".  \n\nAnswer A can be improved by including the aspect of software compatibility and how it can affect the overall performance of an older computer. For example: \"Older computers might not be able to perform smoothly in running new software applications due to limitations of hardware.\" Answer A can also include a statement like \"And although it is possible to replace a computer's CPU, memory, battery, hard drive and other components and installing new parts, it is a much better investment to simply buy a new one.\" "}
{"question":"Why does storage in a hard-drive run out of space? Surely files aren't tangible, right? ","answer_a":"Imagine a piece of paper. You can write as many words on that paper as you want, but they can't overlap. Eventually you will run of space.<br \/>A harddrive is similar. All data saved can be boiled down to a series of 1's and 0's. Hardrives only have so much memory to store all these numbers.","answer_b":"Well, technically, they are tangible.<br \/>You probably heard that files are stored as \"a bunch of 0s and 1s\". Well those 0s and 1s are basically stored is super-tiny switches that can be set in 2 different positions (called 0 and 1). One Byte is 8 such switches, so 1 TB is 8 *trillions* of such very tiny switches. That's a lot, but not infinite, you can only store so much data before you run out of space.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A and Answer B both provided relevant and factual responses to the question. However, Answer A has given a simpler and easier to understand response compared to Answer B.\n\nI liked how Answer A started its explanation with a metaphorical comparison of a hard drive storage with that of a piece of paper \"Imagine a piece of paper...\". It was a simple yet effective comparison, illustrating how it is possible to write as many things on the paper but it has a limited space \"...You can write as many words on that paper...\". This paragraph on Answer A perfectly described the process of storing in a hard drive, which means that users can write as much as they want in a hard-drive until it eventually run out of space, just the same as writing on paper. Answer A has also responded to the second part of the question \"...Surely files aren't tangible, right?\" , although it was only implied by mentioning that data is saved as binary numbers 1's and 0's. (\"All data saved can be boiled down...\"). These are all factual information which indicates that data in itself is tangible through the series of 1s and 0s saved in the hard drives. \n\nAnswer A has minor grammatical mistakes such as missing words and misspellings. For example, in this sentence \"Eventually you will run of space\" should be \"Eventually you will run out of space.\" The word \"harddrive\" should also have a space in between, as well as correct the misspelling of \"Hardrives\". \n\nAnswer B also provided relevant and correct answer to the question. And it was actually difficult to choose between Answer A and Answer B because they have similar responses or statements. Compared with Answer A, Answer B went directly to the second part of the question \"Well, technically, they are tangible...\" Same as with Answer A, Answer B also mentioned \"a bunch of 0s and 1s\" as proof that hard drive storage is tangible. However, I felt that it was unnecessary to include about how this storage is composed of \"super-tiny switches\": \"...those 0s and 1s are basically stored is super-tiny switches...\". Although this information is accurate and correct, I don't think it is needed to answer the question (which I think only dealt with why hard drives run out of space.\" However, I do appreciate that Answer B has included that part about \"One Byte is 8 such switches...\" because it provides an illustration of the amount of storage that a hard drive can have. The statement that \"...but not infinite\" also reiterates that hard drive storage is a finite storage and that it will eventually run out of space. Answer B also has minor grammatical issues such as in \"...basically stored is super-tiny...\" should be \"...basically stored in super-tiny...\". "}
{"question":"How many pieces of hardware does my internet traffic pass through? I've been trying to learn more about networking, but can't seem to find any relatively simple answer to my question. Thought it was simple with basically two routers and a server, but then I learned about switches, optical equipment, and something called a content delivery network.","answer_a":"There are a few different types of hardware that your internet traffic could pass through, but typically it would go through a router, switch, and server. Sometimes it may also go through optical equipment or a content delivery network.","answer_b":"The short answer is a lot!<br \/>The amount of equipment your web traffic will pass through depends on where your destination server is and how far away it is.<br \/>A typical data path might be:<br \/>Your Laptop > Home Router > Modem > ISP CMTS > multiple ISP Fiber switches > NSA tracking device > ISP border routers > Hand off to another ISPs routers > more fiber switches > Datacenter Routers > Datacenter switches > Remote companies Firewall > Remote Companies WAF > Load Balancers > Front End Servers > Firewall > Switching > Database Server","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Honestly, it is difficult to determine which of the two answers is more appropriate. Answer A is too simple and lacks detail. On the other hand, Answer B has provided an answer that looks complicated for someone who is just beginning to learn more about networking. In the end, I will be choosing Answer B because at least it added some hardware that is not mentioned in the question, compared with Answer A which just rephrase and repeated what is already indicated in the question. \n\nIn analyzing the question, it can be inferred that the question writer already has a basic idea of the hardware involved when communicating in the Internet. However, Internet communication is varied depending on the purpose, for instance, the hardware involved is different when you are just accessing Google to search for terms compared with the hardware involved when sending an email to someone across the world. So, it is difficult to list all the hardware that internet traffic passes through. \n\nAnswer A, essentially just repeated the question and mentioned the same hardware: \"router, switch and server...\" and \"optical equipment or a content delivery network\". There is little to no added value in the answer because we can assume that the one who wrote the question already knew about these pieces of hardware. However, the answer is not completely wrong. In its most basic and simplest form, indeed, the most common hardware that internet passes through are routers, switches and the web servers. Depending on what task the user is carrying out within the Internet and the companies involved, there might be other equipment involved such as optical equipment or a content delivery network. (Reference: https:\/\/web.stanford.edu\/class\/msande91si\/www-spr04\/readings\/week1\/InternetWhitepaper.htm) Answer A provides factual information but not enough details to be valuable.\n\nAnswer B, on the other hand, provides more details about the hardware involved when using the Internet. It was nice that it goes direct-to-the-point of saying 'The short answer is a lot'. And compared to the vague response of Answer A, Answer B correctly stated that the amount of equipment involved varies depending on the destination \"...depends on where your destination server is...\". However, the part about '...how far away it is...\" is a bit confusing. Although the distance between the source and destination plays a part on the number of hardware involved, it is not solely dependent in the distance. Even if the location of the source and destination are closed together, it is possible for the destination to have other hardware for routing its Internet traffic. Again, this is on a case-to-case basis. \n\nHowever, the 'typical data path' stated in Answer B is the closest thing to a suitable answer to the question, although if the question writer is looking for a 'relatively simple answer' then Answer B might be a bit complicated. The path mentioned \"Laptop > Home Router > Modem > ISP CMTS...\" is factual and accurate, depending on several factors as stated earlier in Answer B's first sentences (...destination server is and how far away it is...). The inclusion of an NSA tracking device in between the ISP routers\/servers feels unnecessary and does not really play a huge or vital part of communicating within the Internet. This is because there are probably more tracking mechanisms\/firewalls in between the ISPs that no one exactly knows of outside of the ISPs. It is alright to include data centers on the list of hardware because most large companies use these facilities for their IT operations. It is also alright to include firewalls (\"Remote Companies Firewall>Remote Companies WAF\"), however, it should be stated that these are Hardware-based Firewall (because it is different from the typical firewall).The other hardware included are basically dependent on the company handling the destination server. For instance, \"Load balancers>Front end Servers>Database Servers\" are typically used by larger organizations that manage multiple servers, but not all web servers have these additional equipment. \n\nBasically, no one exactly knows the exact data path when accessing the Internet because it involves multiple companies such as the ISPs, network providers and destination company servers. However, there are articles that provide an overview of this network path such as in Google's handling of internet traffic. (Reference: https:\/\/www.wired.com\/2015\/06\/google-reveals-secret-gear-connects-online-empire\/). Answer B can be simplified by \"Your Laptop > Home Router > Modem > ISP servers> ISP Routers\/Switches > Destination ISP Routers\/Switches > CDN (if applicable) > Datacenter Routers and Switches > Hardware-based Firewall > Destination Servers (Front-end Servers and Database Servers). Again, this is not a complete list and only provides a general overview of the equipment involved in the Internet. For example, Content Delivery Network (CDN) mentioned in the question is not a required hardware, not all websites need to have a CDN, especially if the website does not expect access from multiple separate locations. "}
{"question":"How are cryptographic keys used to encrypt and decrypt data? In asymmetric encryption, we have a public and a private key. The way I understand it: The public key is a string that's known to everyone who communicates with someone who receives encrypted data and is used to convert data into cipher. The private key is another string that is only known to the receiver and *only that string* can be used to decrypt the data. How does that work if both strings are different?<br \/>Re symmetric encryption, again it's a mystery to me how a string is used to encrypt some other data but at least the key is the same and not a completely different sequence of characters.","answer_a":"It seems you have a decent working knowledge of encryption, but because this is eli5, consider this instead of the literal process.<br \/>In symmetric encryption, you have a lock box that can be locked or unlocked by only one key. That key is shared between two parties, and is responsible for both locking and unlocking.<br \/>In asymmetric encryption things get a bit spicier. The key metaphor breaks down, BUT you can imagine a public key to be a sealable box offered out to everyone. Once the box is sealed (with something inside) and it's sent back through the metaphorical mail, it can only be opened by the person who originally offered out the box because of manners and laws.<br \/>In reality the later can only occur due to math pioneered in the RSA algorithm which some folks even struggle with at 25. Just know that the products of large primes are involved, and tend to generate intermediate products in the hundreds of trillions.","answer_b":"So, first thing to realise is that Cryptography deals with numbers. You probably already know this, but this is ELI5 so I'll mention it to be sure.<br \/>So let's take a 2 digit number and multiply by 101, or 201, or 745301. Any number ending with 01. Then throw away all but the last 2 digits. You get what you start with.<br \/>We can split this number into factors. What 2 numbers can we multiply together to get 201? 67, and 3 work.  We can do this multiply and keep the last digits trick with each of these.<br \/>3 is our public key. 67 is our private key<br \/>So start with 61.    <br \/>Multiply by our public key to get 183.     <br \/>Keep the last 2 digits as our \"encrypted\" number - 83<br \/>To get and multiply by our private key of 67<br \/>83x67=5561.    <br \/>Take the last two digits and we have the number we started with.<br \/>So that illustrates the basic idea of asymmetric functions. But we can't use multiplication because it's too easy to reverse. We can do something similar with different mathematical operations though. Using powers of primes, in different numerical bases is one such operation. And there are formulas to generate  the numbers that will work for this.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"To better understand the different components of the question, we should break it apart into simpler questions. Basically, the question writer is asking about the process of how cryptographic keys are used to encrypt and decrypt data. Judging from the terms used in the question, we can assume that the writer already has an idea about asymmetric and symmetric encryption. In my opinion, the writer of the question only wants an explanation on what is the difference between the keys used in symmetric and asymmetric encryption and how they are used. \n\nI have chosen Answer A as the better response because it provides a clearer explanation about asymmetric and symmetric cryptography, compared to the confusing calculations of Answer B. \n\nJust from the get-go, I don't think that the writer of Answer B has understood the question clearly. And even if it mentions that it is aware that this is ELI5, the explanation is so technical and confusing, plus it does not even contribute to determining the difference between asymmetric and symmetric keys. To be fair, the calculations provided by Answer B are all correct and they do illustrate the basic idea of asymmetric functions. However, the problem is that Answer B did not even explain how the public and private keys of Answer B work in real-world. Worse, Answer B has completely forgotten about symmetric encryption and had never mentioned it.\n\nIn terms of explaining the concept behind symmetric and asymmetric encryption, Answer A is definitely better than Answer B. In its first sentence, Answer A has recognized the prior knowledge of the question writer \"...It seems you have a decent working knowledge of encryption...\". Answer A has also noted that this is ELI5 and so decided to explain the two types of encryption in the simplest way possible. \n\nCompared to Answer B, Answer A has a well-structured explanation that uses simple words and metaphors to convey meaning. This is good because it allows readers without prior knowledge about encryption to still recognize the difference between symmetric and asymmetric keys. \n\nAnswer A first explained about symmetric encryption in the paragraph \"In symmetric encryption, you have a lock box...\" In this part, we will notice that Answer A had used lock box (locks) and keys as metaphors for encryption. I think this is a good idea to illustrate encryption for beginners. The statements comparing symmetric encryption to a lock box with only one key is factual and accurate. It is true that symmetric encryption uses only one shared key for encryption and decryption of electronic data. (Reference: https:\/\/www.sciencedirect.com\/topics\/computer-science\/symmetric-cryptography)\n\nOn the second part of Answer A, it focuses more on explaining asymmetric encryption. The metaphor of a sealable box (as public key) was effective, although it was quite confusing as well. I particularly did not understand what Answer A means by \"...because of manners and laws.\" This part can be improved by just following the same structure as the explanation of symmetric encryption. It can be stated like \"In asymmetric encryption, it uses a pair of related keys - one public key and one private key, which are used to encrypt and decrypt a message.\" This can be followed by the explanation of what is the use of public and private key. \"The public key can be used by any person to encrypt a message, however,\u00a0the intended receiver can only decrypt it using their private\/secret key (which was shared by the key's initiator). For instance, if someone wishes to send a message that is encrypted, they can use the public key of the recipient from a public directory\u00a0and use that key to encrypt the message before sending it. Using their corresponding private key, the message's recipient can then decrypt it. The processes of encryption and decryption happen automatically and the users do not need to physically lock and unlock the message.\" This explanation that I have written is just the same as the content of Answer A, but provided more explanation about the use of private and public keys. \n\nThe last paragraph of Answer A is a bit confusing as well. I am not sure what the last statements meant but the first sentence has a minor grammatical error in \"...in reality the later...\" which I think should be \"In reality the LATTER...\" However, even though it is confusing the last paragraph is quite meaningful because it is factual that the best example of asymmetric cryptography is the RSA algorithm. The last paragraph can be rewritten as \"One of the best examples of asymmetric encryption is the RSA encryption algorithm, which implements public\/private keys in VPNs, ensuring a secure transmission of data and digital signatures.\""}
{"question":"What is Programming and why is it important to the world? ","answer_a":"Programming is the instructions that every electronic device uses to make them do what we want them to. Your cell phone, computer, alarm clock, car, tv, all have programs that allow them to function.","answer_b":"Computers are complicated machines which can follow a huge variety of simple instructions (known as code) written in specific languages. Programming is basically creating recipes of these instructions for computers to do things. You can almost think of it like combinations of magic spells to make computers do special things. <br \/>Anyway these recipes (or combinations of spells, if you will) can be very large and complex, and they are made to allow computers to do cool things for people who don't know these special computer spells or recipes. So by setting the computers up with these spells, programmers make it possible for non-programmers (muggles?) to use computers for things like posting such questions and getting responses on reddit, or searching for things online, or playing games, or watching cat videos.<br \/>Edit: should have also mentioned phones here, but I'm old school.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and Answer B provided suitable responses to the question. However, even though Answer B seems casual and carefree with its metaphor example, I still preferred the direct and simple approach of Answer A. \n\nAnswer A responded to the question in a straight-forward manner. My issue with Answer A is in its first sentence: \"Programming is the instructions...\". In actuality, programming is the ACT of creating instructions for an electronic device; instructions are more often called as programs or codes instead. However, I appreciate that the definition given was simple and easy to understand.  The first sentence in itself already answered all the aspects of the question, by defining what programming is and then saying that it \"...make them do what we want them to...\". The examples given in this statement \"Your cell phone, computer, alarm clock,...\" also provides supporting hints on what programming or programs are. Answer A can be further improved by providing more examples in how programming (or programs, specifically) work in different devices such as phones and computers, as well as its impact in the future of the digital world. (Additional reference: https:\/\/codiska.com\/articles\/why-programming-is-important-today-and-for-the-future\/) Answer A only has minor grammatical errors. The first statement of Answer A \"Programming is the instructions...\" should be rephrase as \"Programming involves the creation of instructions that...\" or something in that sense.\n\nJust based on length of the answer, Answer B seems to provide more information that Answer A.  And even though I quite like the use of metaphor such as comparing programs to \"recipes\" and \"spells\", in my opinion, the explanation felt more confusing that just using simple words. The introduction part of Answer B was actually great \"Computers are complicated machines...\" but the use of multiple metaphorical elements (...\"Programming is basically creating RECIPES...\" and \"...like combinations of magic spells...\") was too much. It would have been better to just use only one comparison, by choosing either a comparison with recipes or with spells. \n\nThe same confusion of metaphor continues in the  second paragraph of Answer B. The writer of the answer seems to shift back and forth between using the words \"recipes\" and \"spells\" and basically just repeated the same explanation present in the first paragraph. Although the statement \"...programmers make it possible for non-programmers...\" illustrated the value of programming for non-technical users, it does not really convey the real importance of programming in the world. The examples provided \"...playing games or watching cat videos\" were comedic but did not actually seriously answer the second part of the question. \n\nAnswer B can be further improved by toning down the metaphors and just choosing one comparison point (choose either recipes or spells and stick with it). The importance of programming should also be elaborated more by mentioning how it enables important electronic devices to function properly (compared with the mundane  example of playing games which isn't really significant). The writer of Answer B was also aware that the answer should have included other devices outside of computers, not just phones but also other common things such as cars, TVs, etc. \n\nIn summary, both Answer A and Answer B provided factual information about programming, but the directness and simplicity of Answer A makes it a better choice. "}
{"question":"how cloud storage is different than just storing my files on someone else's hard drive ","answer_a":"Well, it is just storing your files on someone else's hard drive. However the difference mainly comes in the fact most cloud storage solutions have way more infrastructure set up to make it as smooth as possible for you. They are always online, they can be accessed from anywhere, they probably have backups upon backups, they likely have better security than a random person with a hard drive, and so on and so forth. <br \/>Cloud services offer the service of your files being accessible from anywhere, at any time, without you having to worry about the details.","answer_b":"Cloud storage is a model of data storage in which the digital data is stored in logical pools, said to be on \"the cloud\". The physical storage spans multiple servers (sometimes in multiple locations), and the physical environment is typically owned and managed by a hosting company. These cloud storage providers are responsible for keeping the data safe and accessible, and the user is responsible for managing access to their data. <br \/><br \/>Cloud storage is different than just storing files on someone else's hard drive in a few key ways. First, with cloud storage the user does not have direct control over the physical storage of their data. Second, cloud storage providers typically offer more robust security and protection against data loss than most individuals could provide on their own. Finally, cloud storage providers often offer additional features and services, such as versioning and access control, that can be difficult or impossible to replicate on one's own.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It was difficult to determine which of the two answers is better because both Answer A and Answer B have provided factual and relevant explanation for the given question. However, I decided that Answer B has provided more details and is more well-structured compared to Answer A.\n\nTo be fair, Answer A provides a simple and easy-to-understand answer to the given question. All of its statements are factual and are based on real-world applications of cloud storage. It has responded well to the question by beginning its paragraph with '...it is just storing your files on someone else's hard drive.\" which directly addresses the question. Answer A has also provided a concise list of the difference of cloud storage solutions as compared with traditional storage (e.g. hard drive of another person) through the statements \"...they are always online,...\". And in its last statement, Answer A also gave a good summary and description of cloud services, although it was a bit confusing what it meant by \"worry about the details.\". There are minor grammatical errors in Answer A such as missing words (\"...comes in the fact most cloud storage solutions...\" which probably needs the word \"that\" in between \"fact\" and \"most\") and confusing phrases such as \"Cloud services offer the service of your files...\" which is better if \"service\" is replaced by \"storage\". \n\nAnswer B definitely is much more lengthy and detailed than Answer A. However, the main reason why I chose Answer B is because it seemed to be more well-structured than Answer A. Answer B started with a paragraph that provides a brief description of Cloud storage in which Answer B established that cloud storage when viewed physically is actually located in multiple servers across multiple locations. In the same paragraph, Answer B also mentioned that most cloud storage is owned by a hosting company which ensures its safety and accessibility. All these information are factual and accurate. However, in my opinion, it would have been better if Answer B also included several examples of popular cloud storage such as Google Drive, Dropbox, among others. \n\nIn the next paragraph of Answer B, it focuses mainly on the difference of cloud storage as compared with storing files on someone else's hard drive. This part addresses the main concern stated in the question, and the way Answer B listed the reasons in a more structured manner is the reason why I chose it over Answer A. All the points given such as control over the physical storage of data, more robust security and protection and additional features and services, are all valid and relevant. However, it would have been better to arrange the list into advantages and disadvantages of cloud storage. (Reference: https:\/\/www.promax.com\/blog\/10-advantages-and-disadvantages-of-cloud-storage). This is because the key differences listed by Answer B combined the positive with the negative. For instance, the first difference \"...the user does not have direct control over the physical storage of their data...\" is often perceived to be a negative side of cloud storage, particularly in the area of privacy. On the other hand, the second difference \"robust security and protection\" is a positive side of cloud storage, because it is true that cloud storage solutions have multiple backup and recovery options (as mentioned similarly in Answer A) in case of data loss. \n\nIn summary, both of the two answers are great in responding the questions and it was just a difference of structure and detail. Answer B can be improved by including examples of cloud storage and then summarizing briefly the advantage and disadvantage of cloud storage in comparison with storing your files on someone else's hard drive. "}
{"question":"If the speed of download and streaming is decided by how fast the server is, why does high-speed internet matter? Sorry if this comes as a bit dumb, but I've seen that no matter how much my internet speed is, most activities on the internet works on how fast the server is, like say downloading, so what's the importance of getting like 1 GBPs internet?","answer_a":"Because you got it wrong. You don\u2019t want to have your battlestation to be a bottleneck, steam allows for really fast DNs, and other game retailers too, for example. There is also 4K content and all types of stuff. <br \/>One time there was some sort of mishap at ISP side and instead of providing 250mbit\/s it provided much more and I downloaded GTA V(around 90GB) in less than half an hour at speed like 70MB\/s. I switched to faster plan as soon as I had the opportunity.","answer_b":"It\u2019s more about if you\u2019ve got more people in your house all doing bandwidth intensive things - so a 1gb connection will be able to support a lot of devices surfing and streaming etc  where I work we have 1gb leased line and that supports about 300 users and about 50 phone lines etc -It\u2019s true that there is a point where the speed of your connection won\u2019t feel any faster to you due to the limits of the sites or services you are connecting to - it\u2019s more about supporting big internet hungry households or lots of users and devices all wanting to connect at once!","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Although both Answer A and Answer B have provided adequate responses to the question, Answer A felt a little limited compared to the explanation provided by Answer B. However, it can be noted that these two answers can be combined together to provide two perspectives. The main difference between Answer A and Answer B is that Answer A supports the assumption of the question (server dictates the speed) while Answer B contradicts the assumption of the question (client dictates the speed). Both of these two perspectives can be right or wrong depending on various factors. \n\nIn analyzing the question, we can break it down into two aspects. First, the question writer is asking why high-speed internet matter. However, this first part presents an incorrect general assumption \"...if the speed of download and streaming is decided by how fast the server is...\" This is because even though there may be instances wherein the server has slow upload\/download speed such as when it serves multiple users at one time, this is rarely the case. On the other hand, the second part of the question refers to the question writer's inquiry on \"what's the importance of getting like 1GBPs internet\" based on the writer's assumption that his internet speed doesn't matter because his Internet activities are dependent on the server's speed.\n\nI did not choose Answer A because it's scope is very limited to the subject of games. I have made this conclusion because Answer A have only mentioned \"steam\", \"game retailers\" and \"GTA V\". Although high-end PC games do require a high-speed internet, it was never mentioned in the question that this is the concern of the question writer. You will notice that the question only stated \"speed of download and streaming\" which is quite vague and broad. \n\nI like how Answer A went directly and called out the false assumption in the question by saying \"Because you got it wrong.\" The initial statements mentioned in Answer A are actually factual, particularly in online games. As Answer A said, \"Steam allows for really fast DNs...\", which is true for both Steam and other game retailers. Then, Answer A also stated that there was a previous instance that the ISP (probably on the server side) had a faster internet speed than normal (\"...One time there was some sort of mishap...\"). However, it should be noted that this sudden increases in internet speed on the server side rarely happens so it is not a solid basis to say that the speed of downloading and streaming is solely dictated by the server. It would have been better if Answer A have also included other types of Internet use such as video streaming and download rather than focus solely in games. Answer A had minor grammatical and context errors such as using the words \"battlestation\" and \"DNs\" which would be confusing to non-gamers or non-technical users. The concluding statement \"...I switched to faster plan as soon as I had the opportunity...\" also felt disconnected from the rest of the statements. It is quite confusing why the writer of Answer A suddenly decided to switch to a faster plan just because of a mishap from the ISP side of the server. It simply doesn't add up. \n \nI ultimately chose Answer B because it disproves the false assumptions in the question. Contrary to Answer A's example about a server side speed change, Answer B places the dependency on the client or user side. Answer B implied that the speed of downloading and streaming can be affected from the client side in the statement \"It's more about if you've got more people...\".To support his claim, Answer B provided an example \"...where I work we have 1gb leased line...\", wherein the 1GBPs connection have to be shared by multiple users. This is a realistic explanation that opens up more missing factors in the question. \n\nIn the example given by Answer B, it was mentioned that he\/she is using a 'leased' line which is a dedicated line usually availed by companies and rarely by 'normal' users. Because it was never mentioned in the question on what type of line the question writer is using, it is difficult to assess on whether his internet speed is dependent solely on the server speed. If the question writer is using a shared broadband line, then it is highly possible that his internet speed is slower because the line he rented is shared by other users. (Reference: https:\/\/www.hso.co.uk\/leased-lines\/leased-line-broadband\/21-differences-between-broadband-and-leased-line-connections). Answer B has also pointed out this factor in the statement \"It's more about supporting big internet hungry households...\". It is nice that Answer B have also mentioned about the possibility that sites\/services may impose limits in the speed, but this is a situation that rarely happens and should be confirmed with the companies involved. \n\nAnswer B uses a conversational tone in its statements so the sentences  became lengthy. Some minor grammatical errors are punctuations such as in \"...intensive things - so...\" which can be written as \"...intensive things, so...\" as well as replacing the rest of  \"-\" with a full stop\/period (.). There are parts that should be separated into two sentences such as \"...streaming etc where I work...\" which should be \"streaming, etc. Where I work...\" and \"...connecting to - it's more about...\" which should be \"...connecting to. It's more about...\"\n\nIn summary, both Answer A and B provided different perspectives in answering the question. Answer B can further be improved by mentioning the different factors that can affect the speed of download and streaming, preferably from both the server and client side. This can be included in a concluding paragraph that can be written as \"There are several factors that can affect the speed of download and streaming. From the client\/user side, these factors include the number of users concurrently accessing the internet, client ISP downtime\/server issues, type of internet connection line (shared broadband, leased\/dedicated line), device used and many more. From the server side, factors might include server ISP issues, server-imposed limitations, number of users concurrently accessing the server, and many others.\" In this way, both perspectives will be covered. "}
{"question":"What is is a neural net really and how does it work? Ok, so I recognize that it's sort of standard to say \"we don't really know how it works\" and I have read articles\/internet comments (I don't remember which) saying that it \"resembles neurological patterns\"  in some capacity or form and that \"the way we don't understand how the brain works is the same way we don't understand how the human mind works\" \\[not exact quotes\\] with this sort of spooky implication that at some level it may represent either a very rudimentary form of consciousness or an important component\/process\/aspect of how consciousness has developed or formed, but beyond these kind of basic simplifications, is it actually coherent or factual to say these sorts of things or is this just wishful thinking that is attempting to personify a completely computational process?","answer_a":"A neural net is really just a computer program that is designed to simulate the workings of the human brain. How it works is that it takes in input data, processes it, and then produces an output. The processing that it does is based on a set of rules or patterns that it has learned from previous experience.","answer_b":"A neural network is made up of neurons.<br \/>The neurons of a neural network are basically just pieces of code. Very simple individually. They simply take one or more numbers as inputs, perform some mathematical calculations, then spit out and output. Very commonly the calculation they perform is to multiply each input by some number (a weight), then add the results all together and put out the sum.<br \/>You take a bunch of neurons and arrange them in layers. Each output from each neuron in one layer feeds into each input of each neuron in the next layer.<br \/>The first and last layers of the network are special. The neurons of the first layer generally only take a single input and the last layer consists of a single neuron that takes, as input, all of the outputs of the layer above it and then provides a single sum (as normal) but \"normalizes\" that sum by forcing it to be a value between 0 or 1 (or sometimes forcing it to be only 0 or 1).<br \/>The \"magic\" of neural networks are the chosen weights for each neuron. Since neural networks can get fairly complex, there are some strategies, often involving feedback loops, where you can \"train\" a neural network on known data to produce the desired output, then unleash it on unknown data.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Honestly, it is difficult to choose between Answer A and Answer B. Both of their statements are factual and relevant, however, there is a difference in their level of complexity. Answer A provides a simpler and easy to understand explanation while Answer B focuses on a more in-depth take on neural networks. In the end, based on the context of the question, I will be choosing Answer A instead because it provides a direct response to the main aspect of the question. \n\nBefore comparing the two answers, it is necessary to analyze the question first. At first glance, the question seems to be complicated, however, upon analysis, I can summarize that the writer of the question only wants to know what is neural net, how it works and whether it represents a rudimentary form of consciousness or whether it is just an attempt to personify a completely computational process. As such, it is difficult to determine whether the writer of the question wants to know the technical aspects of neural networks or if the writer only wants the reassurance that neural networks does not have that 'spooky implication' that he\/she assumes. Both Answer A and Answer B does not directly address the question writer's concern about this 'spooky implication' of neural networks. \n\nAnswer B provided a response that focuses on the more detailed technical aspect of neural networks. All the statements are factual and provide an accurate description of neural networks. It is true that \"neural network is made up of neurons.\" and that these 'neurons' perform functions that takes inputs, performs calculations and produces an output. I liked how Answer B explained this process in a simple and easy to understand way.\n\nHowever, the statements that followed are confusing, too complicated and too technical. Suddenly, after mentioning the simple flow of operations in the neurons within a neural network, Answer B continues with the arrangement of neurons into layers. This extensive explanation does not contribute much in answering the second aspect of the question, wherein the question writer is curious on the implications of neural networks in terms of consciousness, etc. The statements about the layers \"The first and last layers of the network are special...\" is unnecessary and only confuses the reader. The last paragraph of Answer B was actually more valuable because it refers to the \"magic of neural networks...\" in using known data to respond to unknown data. \n\nAnswer B has a great potential and can be improved by removing the complicated and unnecessary bits. It also has minor grammatical errors such as misspellings (\"...then spit out AND output.\" which should be \"AN output\"). The second sentence in the second paragraph is also too lengthy and confusing \"The neurons of the first layer...\".  \n\nCompared to Answer B, Answer A provides a much simpler and shorter response to the question. The tone of the statements of Answer A is also more casual and less technical compared to Answer B.\n\nThe first sentences of Answer A simply described a neural net as a computer program \"A neural net is really just a computer program...\". This statement is factual and realistic because no matter its complexity, in the end, neural networks are just a form of computer programming, in the same context as artificial intelligence and machine learning. The second part of the first sentence also perfectly responds to the question \"...is designed to simulate the workings of the brain.\". If we will go back to the question, the writer of the question actually mentioned the same words that neural networks \"resembles neurological patterns\". Indeed, the inner workings of neural networks aims to resemble how the brain works, although not exactly. \n\nAnswer A also provides a simple, basic explanation of how neural networks work in this statement \"How it works is that it takes in input data...\" However simple it may sound, it is actually the same flow in most processes done by computers. All processes done by computers, no matter how complex or simple it may be, follow the same flow of input - \nprocess - output. Answer A also included a statement \"The processing that it does is based on a set of rules...\" which emphasizes the difference of neural networks with other computer processes. What sets neural networks apart from other computing technologies is that it can 'remember' or 'learn' sets of rules or patterns from known data or 'previous experience' and then use the same rules in dealing with unknown data or situations. This is why neural networks is a term usually used alongside concepts such as machine learning and artificial intelligence. \n\nOne thing that is missing from Answer A is that it did not address the second aspect of the question wherein the question writer is asking whether a neural net has its own rudimentary consciousness or whether it is just a representation of a computational process. This can be answered by \"Although neural networks aims to simulate how the human mind works, it cannot fully resemble all neurological patterns because it is limited by its own programmed algorithms, rules and patterns. Even though neural networks or artificial intelligence for that matter can 'learn' from 'experience', in the end, it is only a representation of a computational process.\" or a statement similar to this one. Answer A can also be further improved by adding examples of the application of neural networks (or its main field: artificial intelligence) such as with common functions like text prediction (smartphone keyboards), voice commands (like Siri), and even AI chatbots (which can simulate human-like conversations). \n"}
{"question":"If modern operating systems have trouble running old applications, how do modern video cards render graphics in old games? ","answer_a":"There are a few ways that modern video cards can render graphics in old games. One way is by using an emulator, which is a software program that imitates the hardware of an older system. This allows old games to run on modern systems, but can sometimes result in poorer graphics quality. Another way is by using a graphics processor that is specifically designed to render graphics in old games. These processors can provide better quality graphics than emulators, but may not be compatible with all games.","answer_b":"Very simply put: the *basic* communication standard for video games (driver, API etc) etc has been the same for many years, hence the ability to run old games. Even far older games from the MS DOS area could run with emulators and virtual machines, and services like GOG make money with bringing old games to current operating systems.<br \/>Imagine having an old car from the 1920 ... could probably still drive on a highway, but not very nice & shiny. <br \/>SYL","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Honestly, it is hard to choose between Answer A and B because both of them addressed the question correctly. However, I preferred the simple way that Answer B has explained about how modern video cards render graphics in old games. \n\nThe question itself contains a bit of an assumption \"If modern operating systems have trouble running old applications...\". It is true that a user can experience performance issues when running older software in a modern OS, however, this is a case to case basis, depending on what operating system is used and how old the software is. In fact, mainstream operating systems such as Microsoft even has Compatibility Settings, just in case users would like to run older applications. (Reference: https:\/\/support.microsoft.com\/en-us\/windows\/make-older-apps-or-programs-compatible-with-windows-10-783d6dd7-b439-bdb0-0490-54eea0f45938). Both of the answers did not point out this assumption, however, I understand why it is dismissed because it is not directly related to graphics compatibility. \n\nI actually liked how Answer A enumerated the ways on how it is possible for modern video cards to render graphics in old games. The description of an emulator is spot-on and factual \"...using an emulator, which is a software program that imitates the hardware of an older system...\". Emulators do indeed allow users to run older systems (or even completely different operating systems) but there are games that might be rendered poorly. For example, using an emulator to play a graphics-intensive game will most probably have image rendering problems. However,  I do not recommended the second way \"...Another way is by using a graphics processor that is specifically designed to render graphics in old games...\" unless the user is an avid gamer who really needs to render old games. From a technical perspective, it makes no sense to use an older graphics processor. This is because older graphics processor might not even be compatible with modern motherboards or won't even be the required graphics to run a modern operating system. If you will check the system requirements of modern operating systems like Windows 11, you can see that it has a minimum requirement (DirectX 12 or later) which means that using an older graphics processor won't even allow you to install the latest operating system. (Reference: https:\/\/www.microsoft.com\/en-us\/windows\/windows-11-specifications?r=1)\n\nI like how Answer B uses simple words to explain how modern video cards are able to render older games. It correctly responds to the question by pointing out that the core\/basic standard of rendering video games has been the same for many years, even with changes to hardware and operating system. (\"...the basic communication standard for video games...\"). This is factual information that directly responds to the question. Similar with Answer A, Answer B also mentions the use of emulators and virtual machines as well as game distribution platforms like GOG (Good Old Games), which are all possible ways to run old games in modern operating systems (\"...Even far older games from the MS DOS area...\"). The last statement of Answer B which uses a metaphor to compare old games with an old car \"...Imagine having an old car from the 1920...\" is also surprisingly effective (albeit in an informal way) in illustrating the possibility of running old games on a new highway (operating system\/graphics processor). The game might not look perfect but it will certainly run on modern graphics cards\/OS. One thing that I might suggest is to remove the 'SYL' part in Answer B. "}
{"question":"how do people install software\/programs on pcb boards? For devices with circuit boards how are people able to load the code on to it to make it perform?","answer_a":"If you are dealing with microcontrollers, in the most common case you write the software on a PC, and then it gets downloaded onto the microcontroller either over USB or with a custom programmer. <br \/>Then it runs on the microcontroller.<br \/>If you want more info, look for an introduction to arduino.","answer_b":"You don\u2019t install software on PCBs you install software on chips. <br \/>Some chips are just not programmable. Their \u201cprogramme\u201d is physically baked into the chip.<br \/>Some chips have different operating options. You still can\u2019t program them but you choose which options to use by setting predetermined voltages on predetermined pins (eg. Pin 0 connected to 5v, pin 1 connected to ground, pin 2 connected to 5v via a 1ohm resistor, etc).<br \/>Some chips do have an internal programmable memory. These have a specific set of pins that can be connected to a Serial\/USB Port which are in turn connected to a pc.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Before analyzing each of the two answers, I would like to focus first on the question. One issue with the question (which is also pointed out by Answer B) is that the question writer is asking \"...how do people install software\/programs on pcb boards...\". This is confusing and vague because PCB boards aren't really programmable. Initially, I actually thought that the question writer is referring to 'PCB Design' which is the process of designing the layout of the electrical connections of the PCB, however, by the mention of 'install software\/programs...', it became clear that the question sounds incorrect. To better understand this confusing part of the question, we should first define what is a PCB or printed circuit board. (Reference: https:\/\/www.power-and-beyond.com\/whats-a-printed-circuit-board-pcb-a-893758\/). Based on definitions from various references (and my own experience), PCBs are \"used to mechanically support and electrically connect electronic components.\" From this definition, it is easy to conclude that it is not a component where you can install software\/programs. That is why, the first and second part of the question is already incorrect from the start.\n\nCompared to Answer B, Answer A attempted to respond to the question by citing the process when programming microcontrollers. The process mentioned in Answer A is actually correct and factual \"...write the software on a PC and then it gets downloaded onto the microcontroller...\". However, it is not relevant to the incorrect question and will only confuse the reader even more. Programming a microcontroller is different from 'programming' a PCB. When someone writes programs for microcontrollers (such as Arduino), they are actually programming its chip not the PCB. In fact, microcontroller programming is synonymous to microchip programming. (Reference: https:\/\/sciencing.com\/learn-microprocessor-programming-7483604.html)\n\nThe main reason why I chose Answer B over Answer A is because Answer B was able to point out the incorrect assumption in the question. The statements \"You don't install software on PCBs...\" perfectly addresses the false assumption. This part of Answer B can further be improved by including the definition of PCB that I mentioned on an earlier paragraph. (Reference: https:\/\/www.power-and-beyond.com\/whats-a-printed-circuit-board-pcb-a-893758\/). This can be added as \"PCBs or Printed Circuit Boards are simply boards that mechanically support and electrically connect electronic components through etched conductive pathways\/tracks.\" This will be enough to provide the question writer and reader an idea about what a PCB really is, and that it is different from a microchip. \n\nThe succeeding statements starting from \"Some chips are just not programmable...\" focus more on chip programming and should be on a separate paragraph altogether. This part of Answer B is similar to the one mentioned in Answer A, which is programming a microcontroller. The details stated in Answer B are all correct and factual, however, the structure of the explanation should be improved. The statements can be summarized as \"Software\/programs can be installed or programmed into chips and microcontrollers. There are chips that can be programmable and there are some that already have a 'program' physically baked into the chip. When dealing with chip or microcontroller programming, you will usually write the software on a PC using a specific language like C programming language. This program is then downloaded into the microcontroller over USB or with a custom programmer, and then executed on the microcontroller. \" If you will notice, I have combined the statements from Answer A and Answer B to come up with a better answer that corrects the question and then provides an introduction to microchip programming. "}
{"question":"why do we need Cmos batteries on motherboards instead of just having a small flash storage. ","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why CMOS batteries are used on motherboards instead of just having a small flash storage. <br \/><br \/>One reason is that the CMOS battery can provide a constant power supply to the motherboard, even when the computer is turned off. This is important because the CMOS battery stores important information about the computer's settings, such as the date and time. If the CMOS battery runs out of power, these settings will be reset and the computer will not be able to function properly. <br \/><br \/>Another reason is that CMOS batteries are not as susceptible to data loss as flash storage. This is because CMOS batteries retain their data even when the power is off, whereas flash storage needs power in order to keep its data intact. This means that CMOS batteries are more reliable for storing important data. <br \/><br \/>Overall, CMOS batteries are more efficient and reliable than flash storage for storing data on motherboards.","answer_b":"Using true nonvolatile storage is possible and sometimes done these days.<br \/>But the battery is used to still run the clock when physically unplugged or PSU switched fully off. Not everyone has their machine connected to the Internet fulltime to keep the clock updated.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Prior to analyzing the two answers, I would first like to point out something confusing with the question itself. By breaking down the question, we can infer that it is asking why CMOS batteries are needed in motherboards instead of using a small flash storage. What is incorrect about this question is that CMOS batteries is not a storage device like flash memory\/storage. The use of CMOS batteries is to provide power to the CMOS chip when the computer is turned off. The CMOS chip is the one that stores data, not the CMOS battery. That is why, it makes no sense to compare CMOS batteries with flash storage. It would have been better if it was a comparison between flash memory and the CMOS chip, because both of them has the purpose of storing data. \n\nThe two answers are quite similar with each other. Answer A provides a lengthy explanation of CMOS batteries but there is a huge confusion between battery and chip. On the other hand, Answer B provides a simple explanation but lacks details that clarifies why CMOS batteries are still used in PCs and laptops. Because of this, I have to choose on which of the two has more potential for improvement, which would be Answer B.\n\nTo be fair, Answer A actually provided some relevant and factual information but the confusion between CMOS battery and CMOS chip is so glaring that it was difficult to ignore. This is the main reason why I did not choose it as the better answer. Answer A is also very well-structured and had no grammatical errors. Its only problem is the confusion in its content. \n\nThe confusion between CMOS battery and CMOS chip is evident starting from the first reason cited in Answer A. The first statement referring to the function of CMOS battery in providing \"...a constant power supply to the motherboard,  even the computer is turned off.\" is completely wrong. The CMOS battery DOES NOT power the motherboard, it powers the CMOS chip. The second statement makes it worse \"...the CMOS battery stores important information about the computer's settings...\". This is an incorrect statement. The CMOS battery is just a battery. The one that stores the computer's settings, such as the date and time, is the CMOS chip. The third statement does not help either. \"If the CMOS battery runs out of power...the computer will not be able to function properly.\" This is not true. A computer (whether a PC or laptop) will still function properly even without a CMOS chip. However, there will be minor issues such as the BIOS settings will be reset\/cannot be saved and that time and date will be inaccurate. (Reference:https:\/\/10scopes.com\/will-motherboard-boot-without-cmos-battery\/#:~:text=Yes%2C%20absolutely.,unable%20to%20save%20BIOS%20settings.) \n\nThe second part of Answer A confirms my suspicion that Answer A is confused between CMOS batteries and CMOS chip. This is obvious in the second sentence \"...This is because CMOS batteries retain their data even when the power is off...\" This is incorrect again. The CMOS batteries does not contain any data, it is the CMOS chip that retains data. And it is the CMOS battery that powers the CMOS chip so that it will retain that data. The description of flash storage as \"...needs power in order to keep its data intact.\" is also wrong, because flash memory can retain a small amount of charge to keep its content intact. \n\nAnswer B has a considerably shorter explanation compared to Answer A. Even if I mentioned earlier that the two answers are similarly bad, Answer B does contain factual and relevant information. Its first sentence \"Using true nonvolatile storage is possible...\" is surprisingly true, especially in modern laptops. According to several articles online (Reference:https:\/\/whatsabyte.com\/do-all-laptops-have-a-cmos-battery\/), most modern laptops already store CMOS settings in flash memory (\"true nonvolatile storage\") instead of in the CMOS chip present in older models.  However, PC motherboards (and other laptop motherboards) still do use CMOS chips (and an accompanying CMOS battery) for storing settings. \n\nThe second part of Answer B mentions about a clock that the battery is used for. \"...the battery is used to still run the clock...\". Although not explained properly in Answer B, it is true that in modern laptops, the traditional CMOS battery has functioned more as an RTC battery, keeping track of the computer's real-time clock when it is unplugged from the power source. (Reference:https:\/\/whatsabyte.com\/do-all-laptops-have-a-cmos-battery\/)\n\nThe last statement of Answer B \"Not everyone has their machine connected...\" is not relevant to the question and must therefore be removed. \n\nAnswer B can be improved by adapting the structure of Answer A. We can also include some statements from Answer A (the corrected version replacing CMOS batteries with CMOS chips). Answer B can be rewritten as: \"CMOS batteries on motherboards of PCs and laptops are still needed because CMOS chips are still used to store BIOS settings and date and time. Nowadays, some modern laptops have replaced the traditional CMOS chip with non-volatile flash memory for storing the BIOS settings. However, the CMOS batteries still exist and are often called as RTC batteries because their main function has changed into providing power to the computer's real-time clock (for updated date and time) when the computer is turned off or unplugged from a power source. \n"}
{"question":"Why are save game files so small compared to the game itself? ","answer_a":"The game save isn't a whole new copy of the game, it's just a list of the stuff the game needs to remember about your character, inventory, location, progress through missions or dialogue trees, things like that. It doesn't need another copy of the physics engine or map (sometimes it needs the map, like in games like Minecraft where the map isn't the same between different saves).","answer_b":"Imagine a map of the world. It's incredibly detailed and large, right? Now, on that map, I need to specify where I am. Despite how large and detailed this map is, I only need two pieces of information: my latitude and longitude. I don't need an entire copy of the map to specify my location, because I already have a map. I just need the relevant pieces of information.<br \/>Game saves work in a similar way. I don't need a copy of a complex render of a sword with full animation to remember that I *have* the sword; I just need a glorified checklist that tells if I have a sword or not.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both answers has provided a suitable response to the question, however, I will choose Answer A as the better answer because it has clearly explained the reason why save game files are smaller than the actual game. \n\nAlthough I appreciate the metaphor used in Answer B to address the question, in my opinion, it was ineffective and will only confuse the reader. Save game files (game saves) are indeed comparable to pieces of a map (\"...Imagine a map of the world...\") and it is true that saving a game follows the same concept (\"...I don't need an entire copy of the map...\"). However, this type of metaphor might confuse the reader into thinking that game saves only include map locations of the character. Take note that the word 'map' (https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Level_(video_games)#:~:text=In%20video%20games%2C%20a%20level,players%20with%20different%20skill%20levels.) is a common term in games so it is easy to misinterpret it within the context of gaming. Answer B's statement \"I don't need a copy of a complex render of a sword...\" overcomplicates the answer even more by using words such as 'render' and 'animation', both of which are relevant terms to gaming (games usually save copies of character sprites (image files of characters) in the device for quick rendering) and might be misinterpreted.\n\nI chose Answer A as the better answer because it provides a clear response to the question. It has provided a definition of the word 'game save' using simple words \"...It's just a list of the stuff the game needs to remember about your character...\". The way Answer A has described game saves is factual and correct. (Reference: https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Saved_game) It is correct that a game save or save file is not a copy of the game, instead it contains information about the player and his\/her progress in the game, including inventory, location, etc. The example provided by Answer B '...It doesn't need another copy of the physics engine...\" also supports the explanation and makes it easier to understand. \n\nHowever, Answer A can be improved by stating that \"The contents of save game files vary depending on the game.\" The answer can also include a brief statement that mentions \"There are different types of save game files and although they are relatively smaller in file size compared to the game itself, they do differ in size depending on content.\""}
{"question":"What is a game engine, why is it some game engine more suitable for a certain game, and what is the difference within other game engines. ","answer_a":"a game engine is a tool used to create a video game.  Think of it a bit like an artist's studio.  If you walk into the studio of a sculpter he will have all the tools needed to make a sculpture, arranged in a sensible manner, with materials and such to assist.  If you walk into the studio of a painter she might have a few of the tools needed to make a sculpture, but not all, and they may be hard to find as she really never uses them (or uses them for something else).<br \/>Thus game engines are usually designed for types of games but if you want to make a space combat flight simulator the tools available in an engine mostly designed for 2D side scroller games wouldn't be the best.","answer_b":"You can also build your own engine to suit your needs but it will take much more work. Some of them are open source so they can take a copy and modify it to your needs","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"At a glance, the huge difference between Answer A and Answer B is evident. Because of how it has responded to majority of the aspects of the question, I am choosing Answer A as the better answer. \n\nI did not choose Answer B because it has not clearly addressed the multiple parts of the question. First, it failed to define what is a game engine as well as the differences between game engines. The statements \"...You can also build your own engine...\" and \"Some of them are open source...\" are irrelevant to the question. To be fair, both of these statements are factual and it is indeed possible to use your own game engine for small game projects although it is not recommended for commercialized games. (Reference:https:\/\/cgobsession.com\/should-you-make-your-own-game-engine\/). Answer B also has some minor grammatical mistakes such as pronoun confusion \"...Some of them are open source so THEY can take a copy...\". \n\nContrary to Answer B, Answer A has a well-structured and clear response to the question. First, it has described a game engine in the simplest words \"...a game engine is a tool used to create a video game...\" and even compared it to an artist's studio \"If you walk into the studio of a sculpter...\". These statements about a game engine are all factual and were stated in an easy-to-understand choice of words. (Reference: https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Game_engine). The succeeding statement of Answer A also partially responds to the second part of the question referring to the suitability of game engines to certain games: \"...Thus game engines are usually designed for types of games...\".  However, this part of the answer is a bit incomplete and does not clearly provide an answer as to why some game engines are more suitable for certain types of games.\n\nAnswer A also has a minor grammatical errors such as misspellings (...If you walk into the studio of a SCULPTER...\". The sentence \"Thus game engines are usually designed for types of games...\" is a bit confusing and can be modified as \"Game engines are usually designed for SPECIFIC types of games. If you want to make a space combat...\". \n\nAnswer A can be further improved by adding more details that responds to the rest of the question, specifically as to why some game engines are more suitable for certain game types and what are the differences between each game engine. For example, Answer A can enumerate the most popular game engines at the moment such as Unity, Unreal, Open3D, etc. (https:\/\/www.perforce.com\/blog\/vcs\/most-popular-game-engines). Answer A can also emphasize the difference between the capabilities of game engines by comparing game engines that are suitable for 2D and 3D games such as Unity for 2D games and Unreal Engine for 3D games (https:\/\/www.pcgamer.com\/the-best-2d-game-engines\/, https:\/\/www.worldofleveldesign.com\/categories\/level_design_tutorials\/recommended-game-engines.php)"}
{"question":"Why before 2012 I was told to use two sticks of RAM for gaming and now people are advising me to buy four in order to get maximum performance? ","answer_a":"Dual and quad channel.<br \/>Dual channel means the CPU and motherboard can use two sticks at once, doubling the performance. This means the performance of the memory, mind you, not of the entire system.<br \/>In modern times you have quad channel which is the same sort of thing -- the board and CPU can talk to all 4 RAM sticks at once.<br \/>Which means that a configuration of say, one 32 GB stick will be slower than 8+8+8+8.<br \/>In practice though the performance difference isn't as huge as it sounds, because from the point of view of a CPU, RAM is very slow, and the CPU uses its own internal cache whenever it can. This means the speed of RAM only matters when the CPU doesn't have what it needs on hand. This means that 4X faster memory might actually translate to a 10-20% real performance difference.<br \/>Still, if your board has support for it, lower size RAM sticks are cheaper, and you don't see the need to add more in the future, there's really no reason not to do it. A small performance benefit is better than none in any case.<br \/>If you look for benchmarks you may find some very confusing results -- some games don't care about dual\/quad channel at all, some have huge performance differences. That's because different games use memory differently. A small, lightweight game probably won't benefit much. A game that pushes the limits and uses lots of RAM will probably benefit quite noticeably though.","answer_b":"The reason people are advising you to buy four sticks of RAM instead of two is because of the way RAM is distributed across the different channels on your motherboard. Most motherboards have four RAM slots, which are divided into two channels. If you have two sticks of RAM, they will be placed in the two slots on one of the channels. This can lead to a performance bottleneck, because the CPU can only access one stick of RAM at a time on that channel. However, if you have four sticks of RAM, they can be placed in the slots on both channels, which will allow the CPU to access two sticks of RAM at the same time and thus increase your gaming performance.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and Answer B have provided sufficient and factual responses to the question. However, Answer A is much more detailed and well-structured compared to Answer B. That is why, I am choosing Answer A as the better answer. \n\nBefore comparing the two answers, it can be inferred that the premise of the question is actually a partial assumption, after all, it stated that some 'people are advising me to buy four in order to get maximum performance'. This means that the writer of the question already has an assumption or perception that four sticks of RAM might result to a maximum performance in gaming, which truthfully is not always the case. \n\nCompared to Answer A, Answer B has provided a much direct and simpler response to the question. All the statements included in Answer B are factual and accurate. It is true that the main reason why people are advising to buy four sticks of RAM is because of the channels \"The reason people are advising you...\" The supporting statements were also correct, because it is valid that the CPU can only access one stick of RAM per channel, even if you have installed two sticks on the two slots. However, the last statement which includes \"...thus increase your gaming performance\" can be considered an assumption. Even if you choose the 4-stick configuration, there is no guaranteed increase in the gaming performance and it still depends on other factors as well as the game involved. (Reference:https:\/\/www.techspot.com\/article\/1971-more-ram-modules-better-for-gaming\/)\n\nAnswer A immediately stated the reason for the 2-stick or 4-stick RAM configuration, which is 'Dual and quad channel'. The definition of Dual and Quad channel were also clear and simple, using words that can easily be understood even by non-technical users. The explanation is factual and correct and in my opinion, was explained really well. It was easy to understand that dual means accessing two RAM sticks at once while quad means accessing 4 sticks at once. \n\nThe statements of Answer A are very well-structured and follows a single flow of thought. After explaining the difference between dual and quad channels, the following sentences emphasized that the jump in performance in using 4 sticks isn't really that huge, and it still depends on computer usage and user preference as stated on \"Still, if your board has support for it...A small performance benefit is better than none in any case.\" It is a realistic response to the question, and informs the user that using a 4-sticks of RAM does not automatically translate to better performance (in contrary to the advise given to the question writer by other people). \n\nThe succeeding statements of Answer A deal with the main part of the question referring to what is the difference between using two sticks of RAM and 4 sticks of RAM in reference to gaming. It was good of Answer A to point out that the result of benchmarks for gaming performance can vary. This is factual and realistic. There is no exact answer whether using a 4-stick configuration will increase the gaming performance for all games. As stated in the last paragraph of Answer A \"...because different games use memory differently.\" This is a valid statement because the question writer did not specifically mentioned what game he\/she is playing and why he needs the performance boost. It can be inferred that in some games there won't be much of a difference, but in other games, there might be noticeable improvement. \n\nIn summary, both Answer A and B are correct, as they both responded to the question with valid statements, specifically the difference between dual and quad channels, as well as the comparison of 2-stick and 4-stick RAM configuration. "}
{"question":"why are chess computers so much better than humans? ","answer_a":"There are a few reasons why chess computers are typically much better than humans at playing chess. One reason is that chess computers can evaluate a large number of possible moves very quickly and accurately, something that humans are not capable of doing. Another reason is that chess computers are not susceptible to making the kinds of mistakes that humans often make, such as getting tired, emotional, or distracted. Finally, chess computers can store vast amounts of chess knowledge and use it to make better decisions, something that humans are also not capable of doing.","answer_b":"Because they can sift through thousands of possible moves in a second and pick the optimal one. It's simply brute-force","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and B have addressed the question correctly, however, Answer A provides more detailed explanation and multiple reasons as to the 'Why' of the question. \n\nAnswer B responded to the question in a direct to the point manner, citing the main reason why chess computers are much better than humans \"...Because they can sift through thousands of possible moves in a second and pick the optimal one...\". It is factual that chess computers become much better than humans because of their capacity to 'sift' all possible moves in an instant and choose the best one. (References: https:\/\/www.chessable.com\/blog\/computers-vs-humans-in-chess-who-is-better\/). The term 'brute-force' is an actual term that refers to the method where computers try all possible combinations and guesses (commonly mentioned in the concept of password hacking.).\n\nI have chosen Answer A because it mentions multiple reasons why computers can become better than humans. I like the way Answer A has used the word 'typically' in its first sentence \"There are a few reasons why chess computers are TYPICALLY...\" because it recognizes that there are instances that computers can actually be beaten by a human chess master. The way that Answer A states each reason one by one is clear and easy to understand. All the reasons stated in Answer A are factual and supported by references about chess computers (Reference: https:\/\/softwarechess.com\/can-chess-computers-beat-humans\/). It is great that Answer A has gone beyond the obvious advantage of the computing power of chess computers and also included the perspective of a human's susceptibility to mistakes due to various factors (\"...chess computers are not susceptible to making the kinds of mistakes...) Answer A's concluding statement that \"...chess computers can store vast amounts...\" is also factual and recognizes the continuous evolution and improvement of chess computers and computers in general, especially in the field of artificial intelligence and machine learning. "}
{"question":"What is happening inside the computer when it \"bricks\"? So I heard the term 'bricked' when people were complaining about Fallout 76 bugs. What is happening inside the computer that a video game makes the computer not turn on?","answer_a":"Usually, an important ROM (Read Only Memory) that contains important data (For example the most basic information on how to turn on, how to decode input from the keyboard, etc) is damaged. So when you start the computer (PC or a PSP or something else), it does not know what to do next!<br \/>Technically, companies are able to fix a bricked device but they usually don't. I remember Sony would replace your PSP and gave you a new one with a relatively small fee.<br \/>I don't know if a game would brick a PC though. Usually, it happens when you are upgrading the firmware\/BIOS. Games don't have access to that.","answer_b":"So \"bricked\" when used with the Fallout 76 stuff is a bit of a misnomer. \"bricking\" electronics means damaging an internal component or software in such a way that you can NEVER recover from it. <br \/>Wiping core system ROMS, heating system beyond normal and destroying components, wiping BIOS are all forms of \"bricking\" ( you computer is as good as a \"brick\" now, doesn't and won't do anything)<br \/>The fallout 76 game was terribly optimized and was overheating people poorly built, or poorly cooled systems. To be fair to Fallout, if their system was that poorly designed, a failure was inevitable. People also reported it breaking their OS and windows would not boot anymore, but that is not \"bricking\" in the traditional sense. What you heard from the media was hype over a hated game. Games very very very rarely cause these types of issues, mainly because they don't have the ability to cause said \"bricking\"","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and B responds correctly to the question. Although Answer A provides a brief explanation about what happens when a computer \"bricks\", it does not respond directly to the second part of the question which refers to Fallout 76. On the other hand, Answer B addresses all the aspects of the question by explaining about bricking as well as the misconception about video games causing computers or other devices to brick. \n\nAnswer A does not have any fatal grammatical mistakes, however, it does contain assumptions such as in the statements \"Technically, companies are able to fix a bricked device but they usually don't. I remember Sony would replace your PSP and gave you a new one with a relatively small fee...\". Replacing bricked devices is subject to the terms and conditions of manufacturers, and most of them would first investigate first what caused the bricking (such as whether the user caused it or there is a hardware malfunction in the device). One thing that I liked about Answer A is how it responded to the question using simple conversational words that can be easily understood by anyone. \n\nAnswer B has responded to the question in a clear and easy to follow manner. It is great that it has first described what is \"bricking\" and how it is connected to the game Fallout 76. The statements provided by Answer B are all factual. The definition of bricking \"...\"bricking\" electronics means damaging an internal component or software in such a way that you can NEVER recover from it.\" is correct. (Reference: https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Brick_(electronics)#:~:text=A%20%22brick%22%20(or%20%22,brick's%20modern%20technological%20usefulness.) The examples given such as \"...Wiping core system ROMS, heating system beyond normal and destroying components, wiping BIOS are all forms of \"bricking\"...) are all relevant and factual. \n\nAlthough I haven't played Fallout 76, by consulting forums about the game and issues regarding it, I agree about Answer B's opinion that it was just an overhyped issue about the game (\"...What you heard from the media was hype over a hated game...\"). Plus I cannot even find a statement from the game's developer\/publisher Bethesda that directly addresses game issues or bugs. The misconception that games can brick devices are primarily discussed in forums and there is no clear answer to this question as it is a case to case basis. It is indeed possible for terribly optimized games (\"...The Fallout 76 game was terribly optimized...) to cause issues in PCs, consoles and mobile devices, but there are many factors that can affect this such as hardware conditions (old and slow devices won't be able to handle higher-end games especially heating issues), software or system incompatibilities, etc.  Answer B's statement that \"The fallout 76 game was terribly optimized...\" can be considered an assumption because as I have mentioned earlier, it depends on the device and the system. It is possible for a game to be optimized to work properly in one system and fail on another system. That is why, games have recommended settings for it to work well. This part \"...The Fallout 76 game was terribly optimized...\" can be rephrased as \"Some players have complained that Fallout 76 was terribly optimized. However, overheating issues mostly occur on poorly built or poorly cooled systems, and these issues can also be influenced by many other factors outside of the video game.\"\n\nAnswer B's statement that \"People also reported it breaking their OS and windows would not boot anymore, but that is not \"bricking\" in the traditional sense.\" is factual. By checking the definition of firmware (https:\/\/www.lifewire.com\/what-is-firmware-2625881), games do not typically access this part of a device and does not usually cause changes to a device's core software. \n\nAnswer B has minor grammatical mistakes such as capitalization of first letters in sentences or phrases (\"...\"bricking\" electronics means damaging an internal...\" and \"...and windows would not boot anymore\") as well as misspellings such as \"...you computer is as good as a \"brick\" now..\" which should be \"...your computer...\" and missing apostrophes \"...overheating people poorly built, or poorly cooled systems...\" which should be \"overheating people's poorly built...\"\n\nIn summary, both Answer A and B have provided correct responses to the question, however, Answer B has given a more detailed answer that addresses all the components of the question, especially with the context regarding Fallout 76. "}
{"question":"How do memory products such as an SD card or flash drive store memory and keep it saved when it doesn't have a power source? ","answer_a":"When you save something to an SD card or flash drive, the device writes the data to a memory chip. This chip is made up of thousands of tiny cells that can each hold a charge. When you remove the SD card or flash drive from your computer, the chip continues to hold the stored data. Even if there is no power source, the data will remain stored on the chip until it is erased.","answer_b":"You might be familiar with transistors. They are basically tiny switches. One kind of transistor called Field Effect Transistor (FET) conducts electricity if you apply a voltage to its gate. If you remove the voltage it doesn\u2019t conduct (or vice-versa, there are two flavours).<br \/>https:\/\/www.rs-online.com\/designspark\/rel-assets\/dsauto\/temp\/uploaded\/What_is_mosfet.png?w=1042<br \/>The nice thing about FETs is that almost no current flows through the gate. <br \/>Flash memory is millions of special FETs with \u201cfloating\u201d gates.<br \/>The gate has a tiny capacitance which means it can hold a tiny bit of charge. Since almost no current flows through the gate this charge can last for years once it has been charged.<br \/>You can use this to store data. Reading doesn\u2019t require you to remove the charge, you simply check if the transistor is conducting or isn\u2019t.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both Answer A and Answer B are similarly good. However, the two answers are different in terms of technical complexity. Because of this, I decided to choose Answer A in the basis that it has a much simpler explanation compared to Answer B. \n\nEven though I have not chosen Answer B as the better answer, Answer B is actually factual and relevant. The main focus of Answer B's explanation is on the concept of transistors \"...You might be familiar with transistors...\". My only issue with Answer B is how it is constructed. The introduction to transistors was so sudden that the reader will get confused on how it is related to the question. It would have been better if Answer B started with the sentence \"Flash memory is millions of special FETs with \"floating\" gates.\" and then following it up with the definition of an FET. This way, the flow of thought is much easier to follow, and the reader will not get confused with the relevance to the question. \n\nThe description of FETs in Answer B is on-point and accurate. (Reference: https:\/\/stonefly.com\/resources\/what-is-flash-memory-all-about) It is true that flash memory is composed of FETs (floating gates) and that its main characteristic is that it can hold charge and store data. The explanations given \"..The gate has a tiny capacitance which means...\" are also correct and based on the actual way of how flash memory works. The only problem with Answer B is that these explanations were not organized properly and it ended up being a jumbled mess of repetitive statements. You will notice this repetition on multiple sentences such as with the phrase \"...no current flows through the gate\" which is repeated twice in Answer B, as well as similar phrases such as \"...remove the voltage it doesn't conduct...\" in the top paragraph and repeated on the last paragraph as \"...check if the transistor is conducting or isn't.\". The information is correct, but it is just so confusing. \n\nAnswer A, on the other hand, is so much simpler and does not use highly technical words that might be unfamiliar with a non-technical reader. Compared with Answer B which immediately goes off about transistors, Answer A provided an explanation that is easier to understand and yet still direct to the point in answering the question. The statements mentioned in Answer A are also factual and accurate, as well as stated in a much clearer manner than that of Answer B. The process flow of storing data in a memory chip was described properly starting with the sentence \"When you save something to an SD card...\" This process flow is correct and explains the process in simple words. The statement \"This chip is made up of thousands of tiny cells...\" is actually referring to the FETs mentioned in Answer B. \n\nAnswer A is so well-structured that it opens up lots of potential for improvement. It is possible to improve Answer A by combining it with some of the technicality in Answer B. Answer A can be rephrased in the following manner. After the sentence \"This chip is made up of thousands...\", we can insert the information about transistors included in Answer B such as \"These array of cells is made up of transistors called Field Effect Transistor (FET) with floating gates, allowing it to hold a tiny bit of charge and store data.\" And then this sentence can be followed up with the rest of the explanation from Answer A \"...When you remove the SD card...\""}
{"question":"It is said that if you wipe a hard drive with all zeros it's theoretically possible to recover the data, how? ","answer_a":"Not sure why everyone here is saying it's super expensive to restore deleted files. <br \/>Free ware programs can often recover files over written by 0.","answer_b":"When the hard drive is writing it's basically turning a sequence of electric pulses into magnetic fields being one direction or another.<br \/>If I overwrite a 1 with a 0, it's going to trying to turn the magnetic domain on that area of the platter 180 degrees. Because it's only a pulse, the magnetic field may only turn 175 degrees or 170 degrees. It's still clearly the other direction but not quite aligned. If I overwrite a 0 with a 0 it's going to reinforce the direction of the magnetic domain because the pulse is going to drag whatever crystals are almost in line even further in line with the magnetic field lines.<br \/>Now say I run over that disk but instead of looking for north-south alignment I look for magnetic domains that are close to perfectly aligned and magnetic domains that are out of alignment. If the magnetic domain is out of alignment I know it's probably going to be a 1 overwritten by a 0. If it's strongly aligned I know it's probably a 0 that was reinforced by being written to by another 0.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"It is difficult to determine which of the two answers is correct because both the two answers are quite incorrect. Upon analysis, the question asks whether it is possible to recover the data if a hard drive is wiped with all zeros. Although Answer B contains explanation about how a hard drive is written, it does not clearly answer the question. Therefore, I am choosing Answer A because it at least provides a definite answer to the 'how' part of the question. \n\nThe question does not contain any false assumptions. However, unfortunately, both Answer A and B does not provide a direct response to the given question. \n\nAt first glance, Answer B seems to provide a detailed explanation (\"If I overwrite a 1 with a 0, it's going...\"), however, the information provided does not even respond to the question. The facts mentioned about how hard drive is written (\"When the hard drive is writing it's basically turning a sequence of electric pulses into magnetic fields being one direction or another...\") is correct but the succeeding statements overcomplicate things without addressing the actual question, making them irrelevant. Answer A, on the other hand, responds to the question partially by mentioning about freeware recovery programs (\"Free ware programs can often recover files over written by 0...\").\n\nDue to its over-explained paragraphs, although Answer B does not have fatal grammar mistakes, the construction of the sentences makes it very confusing and complicated both for technical and non-technical readers. The sentences seem to not flow in a single thought and it seemed that the writer is only repeating the same things over and over. (\"If I overwrite a 1 with a 0....\", \" If I overwrite a 0 with a 0...\")\n\nAnswer B provides factual, albeit confusing information about how a hard drive writes data using binary numbers (0 and 1) \"When the hard drive is writing it's basically turning a sequence of electric pulses into magnetic fields being one direction or another...\" (Reference: https:\/\/cs.stanford.edu\/people\/nick\/how-hard-drive-works\/#:~:text=The%20hard%20drive%20contains%20a,the%20stored%200's%20and%201's). It also provides an explanation of how wiping a hard drive means overwriting the existing bits with random values or with zeros. \n\nAlthough Answer A provides a hint of a direct answer to the question, unfortunately, it is based on a false assumption. First, the statements \"Not sure why everyone here is saying it's super expensive to restore deleted files.\" and \"Free ware programs can often recover files over written by 0.\"  are assumptions not based on real-world applications. To explain it, the question actually refers to zero filling, a method of wiping a hard drive with all zeros, usually in multiple passes. (Reference: https:\/\/www.techopedia.com\/definition\/10143\/zero-filling#:~:text=Zero%20filling%20is%20a%20method,undone%20from%20the%20hard%20drive.). Consulting various references and tech forums, the statement given by the writer of Answer A contradicts what is known by most experts. Zero filling is one of the most effective way to wipe the data written on a hard drive. Without expensive hardware and expert personnel, it is difficult to recover any data within that wiped hard drive. (https:\/\/askubuntu.com\/questions\/21501\/possibility-of-recovering-files-from-a-dd-zero-filled-hard-disk). However, it is indeed possible for some freeware programs to recover SOME parts\/bits of files over written by 0 but it is near impossible to recover whole usable files (unless you have specialized equipment). \n\nBoth answers are actually incorrect. Answer B strays too far from the question and does not respond to it while Answer A provides false assumptions and generalizations without basis. \n\nIn this regard, Answer A can be improved by giving more information about what zero filling is and reversing the statements. Instead of saying that 'freeware programs can recover files...', it should be made clear that it is not always the case and the likelihood (whether in reality or theoretically) of file recovery is difficult unless using powerful computers and expert data recovery specialists. \n\nAn improved Answer A can be stated as \"Wiping a hard drive with all zeros, often referred to as zero filling, is one of the most effective way to wipe the data written on a hard drive. To answer the question, it is theoretically possible to recover the data within the wiped hard drive, given the appropriate hardware, software and personnel. Some freeware programs claim to recover files from a zero-filled hard drive, but aside from bits and pieces of the files, it is near impossible to recover whole usable files.\""}
{"question":"Is there a historical reason why people shout \"Geronimo\" when jumping off things?","answer_a":"Since Geronimo fought in Arizona and Sonora, where did the story come from?","answer_b":"From https:\/\/www.etymonline.com\/word\/geronimo  <br \/>\"Geronimo\" cry made in jumping, 1944 among U.S. airborne soldiers, apparently from the story of the Apache leader Geronimo making a daring leap to escape U.S. cavalry pursuers at Medicine   Bluffs, Oklahoma (and supposedly shouting his name in defiance as he did). Adopted as battle cry by paratroopers in World War II, who perhaps had seen it in the 1939 Paramount Studios movie \"Geronimo.\" The name is the Italian and Spanish form of Jerome, from Greek Hieronomos, literally \"sacred name.\" One contemporary source also lists Osceola as a jumping cry.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is the better choice, largely because Answer A is not in fact a response to the original question; instead, Answer A offers a new question of its own. As such, Answer B wins out almost by default.\n\nThat is not to discount its merits. Answer B correctly identifies the origins of the \"Geronimo\" cry in the story of the Apache leader who carried the same name. However, it is not really the author of Answer B providing this information, since it is linked directly from the website cited at the beginning of the response. Even so, the information is correct, and therefore -- especially given the content of Answer A -- it is the superior choice."}
{"question":"I remember learning about an ex prisoner who was brought to America to help train the soldiers. But the details escape me. Can anyone provide details to who he was?","answer_a":"Those clues are kind of vague, but one possible candidate *might* be Casimir Pulaski. He was an effective cavalry officer who was embroiled in the chaos of Poland in the later 18th c. and fought on a losing side, but while he was tried and condemned and his possessions confiscated, he'd fled to France  by then. So, \"ex prisoner\" is not *quite* correct. But he did indeed help train American cavalry- and irritated quite a few who served with him with his imperious manner. If you heard about him in the US, it might be because there are a lot of towns named after him, and he became quite a popular hero to later Polish-Americans.<br \/>Pienkos, A. (1976). A Bicentennial Look at Casimir Pulaski: Polish, American and Ethnic Folk Hero. Polish American Studies, 33(1), 5\u201317. http:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/20147942","answer_b":"The ex-prisoner mentioned is most likely Jean-Baptiste Charbonneau, also known as Pomp. He was the son of Sacagawea and Toussaint Charbonneau, and accompanied the Lewis and Clark expedition as a young child.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste was born in 1805 and captured by the Hidatsa tribe at a young age. He spent several years living with the Hidatsa before being traded to the Lewis and Clark expedition in exchange for horses. Lewis and Clark took him under their wing, and he spent the next several years traveling with them across the country.<br \/>In 1811, the expedition returned to St. Louis and Jean-Baptiste was placed in the care of William Clark. Clark helped to educate him and arranged for him to be trained as a blacksmith.<br \/>Jean-Baptiste spent the next few years working as a blacksmith in St. Louis. In 1823, he was hired by the US government to help train soldiers at Fort Atkinson in Wisconsin. He continued to work as a blacksmith and soldier until his death in 1866.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better of the two, but Answer B is not a bad response. The fault here really lies in the original question, which is extremely vague, frustratingly ungrammatical, and too short. Given these shortcomings -- there are presumably dozens, if not hundreds, of people who might fit this description! -- both answers are acceptable. \n\nI believe that Answer A is the better option ultimately because Casimir Pulaski seems to fit the (again, vague) description provided by the original poster better than Jean-Bautiste Charbonneau. Charbonneau was not \"brought to America\" as Pulaski was; moreover, while he was technically an \"ex-prisoner\" of an indigenous tribe, those relationships were rarely as punitive as the modern idea of imprisonment suggests. Granted, as Answer A notes, Pulaski was also not really an ex-prisoner; but he was a genuine foreigner, born overseas, and for that reason I think he is the better choice. \n\nAgain, however, it is the question that is truly at fault here."}
{"question":"Were there any battles during World War 2 involving significant amounts of tanks of French, British, or Japanese origin?<br \/>We hear plenty about conflicts between American or Russian and German armored divisions during the war, but I'm not too familiar with any battles involving Japanese, French or British tanks. I'm aware that the French army folded relatively quickly and a significant amount of equipment fell into German hands, and that the island hopping campaign and the terrain involved wasn't overly conducive to armored warfare, but I feel that makes these conflicts, if any exist, more interesting","answer_a":"Depending on your definition of \"significant amounts\", the Japanese had 73 tanks in the Battle of Khalkhin Gol against the Soviet Union in 1939.<br \/>See *Japanese Tanks 1939-45* by Stephen J. Zaloga for details.","answer_b":"For Japan there is some stuff in Alvin Coox *Nomonhan: Japan Against Russia, 1939.*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Strictly speaking, both of these responses are sufficient to answer the question (or part of it, at least). Both reference the existence of Japanese tanks during the Second World War, and both provide (different) outside sources wherein more information can presumably be found.\n\nThat said, Answer A wins out because it provides specific details about an incident in which Japanese armor was deployed against the Soviet Union in 1939. It also rightfully acknowledges the ambiguity of the original question by noting that estimations of \"a significant number\" may be subjective."}
{"question":"There are lots of interesting religious relics listed on Wikipedia like [Mary Magdalene's skull] (https:\/\/en.wikipedia.org\/wiki\/Relics_of_Mary_Magdalene?wprov=sfla1).<br \/>How would a church have come by something like this and how likely is this to be real (by which I mean the skull belonging to the real historical figure)? <br \/>On that subject, are there any other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance that you could post about?","answer_a":"The thing is that whether or not a relic is 'real' is sometimes not the point. More can always be said on the matter if anyone would like to explore this topic, so if you can contribute your knowledge, please don't let this linkdrop stop you! For the meantime, OP, I commend to your attention u\/WelfOnTheShelf's [post on relics and their authenticity](https:\/\/old.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/hi3z4f\/i_am_the_abbot_of_a_mediumsized_medieval\/).","answer_b":"The church could have come by the skull in a number of ways. It could have been donated by a follower of Mary Magdalene, or it could have been acquired through trade or purchase. It is also possible that the skull was taken from Magdalene's tomb after her death.<br \/>There is no way to know for sure if the skull is real. However, if it did belong to the historical figure of Mary Magdalene, it would be a very significant relic.<br \/>There are a number of other religious relics with interesting stories or provenance. For example, the Shroud of Turin is a piece of cloth that is believed by some to be the burial shroud of Jesus Christ. The relic is controversial, as some believe it to be a fake, but it remains a significant religious relic nonetheless.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This is a difficult choice. \n\nOption A does not provide much of an answer beyond directing the reader toward another, more comprehensive thread (although I do appreciate its point that the legitimacy of a given relic was not necessarily the point for many believers). However, Answer B does not offer a very substantive response to the question; while it lists a number of ways that the skull of Mary Magdalene may have arrived in Maximin-la-Sainte-Baume (where it is currently housed), it does not do so with any supporting evidence. Nor is it entirely correct that \"there is no way to know if the skull is real.\" Some preliminary analysis has already been done on the skull in order to elucidate its origins, and were it not for the Church's refusal to allow further analysis, presumably it could be carbon-dated. In both of these senses, Answer B is also unsatisfactory.\n\nUltimately, it is the final bit of Answer B about the Shroud of Turin that makes it the better option, because it represents a concrete response to the original query -- something that Answer A does not provide, despite linking a very useful third-party discussion."}
{"question":"I\u2019m reading Richard Miles\u2019 *Carthage Must be Destroyed*, and it includes this map [https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w](https:\/\/imgur.com\/a\/sD7Po1w) of Phoenician trading routes in the section titled \u201cThe Early City,\u201d so I\u2019m assuming this is meant to depict them during the time covered by the section in question, around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria, but Alexandria wasn\u2019t there yet. Where is this supposed to be? Was it just a random little Phoenician trading stop, and if so how would Miles or whoever made this map have decided that that specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route? You\u2019d think the answer would be in the text of the book, but if it is I can\u2019t find it \ud83d\ude05","answer_a":"The map in question is meant to depict the Phoenician trading routes around 8th-6th century BC. The southern route to Tyre includes a stop in Egypt at what looks to be Alexandria. However, Alexandria was not founded until around 331 BC, centuries after the time period depicted in the map.<br \/>So, what is this supposed to be? It is most likely a Phoenician trading stop that was in existence before Alexandria was founded. Miles or whoever made this map may have decided that this specific place was the most likely stopping-point on that route based on its location and the fact that it was a known trading stop for the Phoenicians.","answer_b":"It's almost certainly referring to [Herakleion](https:\/\/www.theguardian.com\/cities\/2016\/aug\/15\/lost-cities-6-thonis-heracleion-egypt-sunken-sea), which was the largest port in Egypt at the time and the main source of goods bound for the Greek settlement of [Naukratis](https:\/\/www.ucl.ac.uk\/museums-static\/digitalegypt\/naukratis\/index.html) in the western Delta. For more on relations between Egypt and the other Mediterranean powers, see [*Beyond the Nile: Egypt and the Classical World*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=UTlDDwAAQBAJ) edited by Sara Cole.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of the two responses here, Answer B is far and away the better choice.\n\nAnswer A provides no new material or commentary; instead, like some of the other answers evaluated above, it simply restates the original question in the form of an affirmative statement. \n\nAnswer B, on the other hand, provides a definitive answer (Herakleion), supported by a series of external references. Granted, one of those citations is a link to The Guardian, which I'm not sure qualifies as an academic source. But the other two sources are legitimately scholarly, and the author is rightfully confident in their answer. It is by far the better option of the two."}
{"question":"What were the differences (if any) in the standard protective finishes on firearms from WWI to WWII?<br \/>I'm struggling to find conclusive details on the protective finishes used on historical firearms.<br \/>While browning has been around for centuries, blueing seems to be almost universally preferred for firearms. However, I can't find any reliable sources on exactly how these firearms were protected. Some say they were blued, others that they just slapped on a load of radiator paint. Still others talk about anodising but that seems unlikely to me based on examples I've seen. I've also heard that they simply weren't protected at all, notably with the Sten gun.","answer_a":"As you likely have noticed, there are LOTS of ways to blue a firearm. What makes it confusing is that both browning and blueing are making an iron oxide layer, and a blued finish will, on exposure to the elements ( like, someone goes hunting) bit by bit revert to regular brown rust, so quite a lot of guns are now brown that were once blue ( there's a gunsmith invocation over blueing: \"from rust you came, to rust you shall return\"). <br \/>In the later 1800's it was discovered that a phosphate coating could be created that was more stable than blueing or browning. The patent history is a bit complex, but the process was made practical after 1900, and in 1918 the Parker Rust-Proof Company started up in Detroit. Because of them , the finish has since generally been called parkerizing, and it was adopted by Springfield Armory and contractors as the standard finish on US small arms in WWII, like the Garand, the 1911A1 automatic pistol, the 1903A3 rifle.  I'm afraid I don't know if any other countries used it, however: I think a blued finish was the most common elsewhere. <br \/>Even though the patents have long expired, the Parker Company still exists, and has a [website](https:\/\/www.parkerhq.com\/about-us)<br \/>Angier, R. H. (2021). Firearm Blueing & Browning (First Edition). Stackpole Co.   ( I should note, here, that Angier's book, the classic reference,  is from 1936. It is  still in print)","answer_b":"There is some debate over the protective finishes used on firearms during WWI and WWII. Some say that the firearms were blued, while others claim that they were simply painted with radiator paint. Still others believe that the firearms were anodized, though this seems unlikely based on examples that have been found. It is also possible that the firearms were not protected at all, as was the case with the Sten gun.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better choice. It responds to the question in full, provides an interesting explanation for the interpretive problems described in the original query, and attaches several useful references (including the fascinating link to the Parker Company's website, which is a rare example [in these evaluation tasks, at least] of a primary source citation). Given the level of detail, I assume Answer A must be written by an expert.\n\nAnswer B merely restates the original question in the form of an response, largely using the same language that appeared in the query itself. As such, it does not provide any new information."}
{"question":"When the joint-stock company was first invented, was there a lot of pushback on the concept? What were some of the concerns?  Also any recommended books on the invention of the concept would be much appreciated!","answer_a":"An early form of joint stock ventures appeared in Assyria by the beginning of the 2nd millennium BCE. There does not seem to have been any noticeable pushback against the concept, although trade caravans were often taxed heavily. Of course, the relevant texts were written to and from people engaged in trade, so there's no way of knowing what other Assyrians thought of long distance trade. <br \/>>Most of these traders had become more independent by having become managers of a \"joint-stock fund\" (called *naruqqum*, \"money bag\"), usually set up in Assur. This phenomenon appeared for the first time around 1900 BC and seems to have been an Old Assyrian invention that went beyond individual partnerships and cooperation in a joint caravan. The arrangement, rather similar to that of the early medieval *compagnia*, meant enlisting a number (usually about a dozen) of investors (*ummi\u0101num*, \"financiers\"), who supplied capital rated in gold, usually in all ca. 30 kilos, ideally consisting of shares of 1 or 2 kilos of gold each. It was entrusted to a trader (the tractator), usually for ca. ten years, for the generally formulated purpose of \"carrying out trade.\" The contract contained stipulations on a final settlement of accounts, on paying dividends, on the division of the expected profit, and on fines for premature withdrawal of capital (meant to secure the duration of the business). Investors or shareholders mostly lived in Assur, but successful traders in Anatolia too invested in funds managed by others, perhaps also as a way of sharing commercial risks. In such cases a contract would to be drawn up in Anatolia that obliged the tractator \"to book in Assur x gold in his joint stock fund in the investor's name.\" Among the investors we find members of the tractator's family, but also business relations and others, probably a kind of \"merchant-bankers,\" and other rich citizens, who aimed at fairly safe, long-term investments.<br \/>[\"Ancient Assur: The City, its Traders, and its Commercial Network\"](https:\/\/www.jstor.org\/stable\/25651212) by Klaas Veenhof<br \/>For more on Old Assyrian trade and these early joint stock funds, see [*Ancient Kanesh: A Merchant Colony in Bronze Age Anatolia*](https:\/\/books.google.com\/books?id=qXGgCgAAQBAJ) by Mogens Larsen.","answer_b":"There was definitely some pushback when the joint-stock company was first invented. Some people were concerned that it would lead to corruption and cronyism, while others were worried that it would concentrate too much power in the hands of a few people. Recommended books on the topic include The First Tycoon: The Epic Life of Cornelius Vanderbilt by T.J. Stiles and The Great Transformation: The Political and Economic Origins of Our Time by Karl Polanyi.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of this pair, Answer A is the stronger response. Because both authors take radically different chronological perspectives (one ancient, one very modern), it makes it somewhat difficult to compare them. However, because Answer A is the more detailed, the better supported, and the more technically correct of the two, it is the better option.\n\nIn describing the ancient Assyrian origins of joint-stock financing, Answer A goes into exceptional detail (almost too much detail, in fact, for my taste). It does so comparatively, with reference to the medieval compagnia system, and it also supports its claims with an outside reference. When combined with the linguistic sensitivity on display, I have no doubt that the author of Answer A knows their stuff.\n\nAnswer B, while equally confident (and somewhat correct about the suspicions surrounding the early tycoons of twentieth-century American culture), is less satisfying largely because the joint-stock concept was old news by the time that Vanderbilt started building his fortune. If not in Assyria, as Answer A claims, joint-stock ventures were certainly operating in England and the Dutch Republic, where they helped to finance some of the early transatlantic voyages to North America during the 16th and 17th centuries."}
{"question":"I'm reading through Ketcham's biography of Madison and I came on this quote just after Madison become Secretary of State describing a job seeker who<br \/>>began hopefully with a request for a territorial governorship, gradually descended to pleas to be appointed a port collector or postmaster, and ended finally... with a request for castoff clothing<br \/>This sounds very similar to something from Team of Rivals where Lincoln told a very similar story of someone settling for pants. Would one or both of these have been fictional stories told as jokes? Might Lincoln have taken the story from Madison? Or was this a common way that these job seekers asked for stuff?","answer_a":"It is possible that Madison and Lincoln were both telling jokes, as it is common for politicians to tell stories to make a point. It is also possible that Lincoln took the story from Madison, as he was known to borrow stories from others. It is also possible that this was a common way for job seekers to ask for things, as it would have been a way to get the attention of the person they were asking.","answer_b":"From the outset of the new US, every change in administration would result in a new chance for government posts to be awarded.  Of all the Founding Fathers. Madison was the consummate deal maker, and it's easy to imagine the story originating with him. <br \/> But Andrew Jackson was the most notorious practitioner of awarding posts to friends:  before him, chances were at least pretty good that a Federalist would be able to keep his job if a Democratic President came to power. But Jackson wanted a bureaucracy loyal to him, correctly saw that rewarding office seekers with positions was a way to gain political support in their regions, and was quick to terminate people in order to get it. By Lincoln's administration, it was very much expected that a there would be a major turnover in positions coming in with his election, so your story was certainly a joke- a wry one, as Lincoln had plenty of men hanging about the White House getting in his way, hoping for just such a chance.  But the joke had a point, both for Madison and Lincoln- there had to be a quid pro quo, as the office seeker was expected to bring some local influence, bring the support of a Congressman, an electoral district; something useful. A man without influence might well only be able to beg for a pair of pants.<br \/>Real civil service reform was begun by Garfield, and after he was shot by an office seeker, carried on to everyone's surprise by  Chester A. Arthur. The Pendelton Act of 1883 that began to create a professional civil service really does not get as much attention as it should, for the \"spoils system\" had been a major source of corruption.<br \/>Hoogenboom, Ari Arthur( 1982) *Outlawing the Spoils: A History of the Civil Service Reform Movement, 1865-1883*","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of these two responses, Answer B is the better choice. Although I don't think the structure of the response is particularly effective -- it takes too long for us to understand the connection that he's drawing between Madison, Jefferson, and Lincoln -- it does a good job of tracing the early history of civil service reform. Moreover, Answer B writes with authority, including a level of detail that I associate with expertise. The addition of an outside source at the end of the comment easily make it the best choice.\n\nAnswer A, however, offers only generalizations and speculations (\"it is possible...\") without any real support or conviction."}
{"question":"Has there been any battles in history where both sides were completely and mutually destroyed?","answer_a":"In normal conditions, this would not happen, since casualty rates in historical battles are rarely that extreme. In ancient warfare the defeated side might incur something like 10-20% casualties unless things went disastrously wrong. In modern warfare a unit that has lost more than 30% effectives is considered unfit for action.<br \/>Most of the time, the deciding factor is morale. Warriors simply aren't going to keep on fighting when they see their buddies falling left and right and they see no way of turning things around. They're going to try to get out of there, find a place of safety, and regroup if they can; or they're going to surrender. When the situation is hopeless, most armies will give up the fight, and this will happen long before they come anywhere near total annihilation. In fact, in premodern warfare the great majority of casualties were sustained when the side that broke first was fleeing from the battlefield with the victorious side in hot pursuit.<br \/>So, given these conditions, what would you need to achieve mutual destruction? You'd need two sides that were roughly evenly matched and utterly determined never to give up. The necessary attitude may sometimes be found among the last defenders of a town or fortress, but of course you would never get two such forces fighting each other; in most cases where one side is prepared to fight to the end, the other side is vastly superior and not similarly inclined. The result would be either the annihilation of the defenders or the flight of the attackers - never mutual destruction.<br \/>There is one case from Greek history that meets your requirements, though, by virtue of being artificially created and utterly exceptional: the so-called Battle of the Champions, fought around 550 BC between the Spartans and the Argives (Herodotos 1.82). When the two armies met, they agreed to settle their dispute over a border region by each choosing 300 champions, and letting those men fight it out. It seems these picked forces were a match for each other, because all 600 men died, except for two Argives and one Spartan. At that point the two Argives left the battlefield and declared themselves victorious. The Spartan stayed behind, stripped the dead of their armour, and declared himself victorious. <br \/>There is no other example of a prearranged battle like this in Greek history. The reason is obvious: it was a complete failure, since the two sides couldn't agree on who had won, and in the end they decided to launch their whole armies into an all-out battle anyway. But because of the artificial conditions and the dedication of the 600 champions, it's the closest a battle ever got to complete destruction on both sides.","answer_b":"There have been a few instances in history where both sides in a battle were completely and mutually destroyed. One example is the Battle of Cannae during the Second Punic War, in which the Carthaginian forces led by Hannibal annihilated a much larger Roman army. Another example is the Battle of Agincourt during the Hundred Years' War, in which the English forces led by Henry V defeated a much larger French army.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of this pair, Answer A is by far the better choice. It is more comprehensive, more nuanced in its consideration of the original question, and -- most importantly -- more accurate. Answer B seems to have misunderstood the original question's language, for neither battle that it mentions actually resulted in the mutual destruction of both armies. \n\nAnswer A, on the other hand, not only explains how unlikely it would be to see such a scenario in real-world conditions (for reasons of morale, above all), but also offers perhaps the lone example of such a combat in the form of the Battle of Champions: an artificial, pre-set engagement that satisfied virtually no one involved on either side of the nascent conflict. All told, it is an excellent response."}
{"question":"Is there any idea what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles? When the church was replaced with a mosque, would the bones from the crypt just have been randomly tossed somewhere?","answer_a":"The Crusaders tossed those bones during the sacking in 1204.<br \/>Janin Raymond, La G\u00e9ographie Eccl\u00e9siastique de l'Empire Byzantin. 1. Part: Le Si\u00e8ge de Constantinople et le Patriarcat Oecum\u00e9nique. 3rd Vol. : Les \u00c9glises et les Monast\u00e8res","answer_b":"There is no certain answer to what happened to the remains of the Byzantine emperors in the Church of the Holy Apostles. It is possible that the bones from the crypt were just randomly tossed somewhere when the church was replaced with a mosque.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better answer of this pair, although it is relatively brief. As in some of the other evaluation tasks above, Answer B appears to have merely shuffled the wording of the original question into the form of a statement.\n\nIn comparison, Answer A provides a different -- and, to my knowledge, more accurate -- timeline (i.e., the Latin Christian invasion of Byzantium in 1204), complete with an academic reference. Again, were I grading this answer on an exam, I would want more information. But in this instance, the first option provides all the necessary information clearly and concisely."}
{"question":"What does the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" mean and where did it come from? I have frequently seen it in archeology reports, or when Brits are speaking. I presume it to mean an improved road of some sort like gravel or paved road as opposed to a plain dirt road.","answer_a":"The term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is used to describe an improved road surface that is made up of compacted materials like gravel, stone, or pavement. This type of road surface is typically found in areas with high traffic volume or in locations where the natural soil conditions are not suitable for a paved road. In some cases, metal roads can also refer to roads that are coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous materials. <br \/>The term \"metal road\" is believed to have originated in the early 19th century, when roads were first being improved with compacted materials like gravel and stone. At that time, the use of metal (usually iron or steel) was also becoming more common in road construction, as it was used to reinforce the roadbed or to create drainage ditches alongside the road. Over time, the term \"metal road\" came to be used as a general term for any improved road surface, regardless of the materials used. <br \/>Today, the term \"metal road\/metaled road\" is still used in many parts of the world, particularly in Britain, to describe an improved road surface. In some cases, the term is used interchangeably with \"paved road\" or \"tarred road.\" However, in other cases, it may be used to specifically describe a road that is made up of compacted materials like gravel or stone, or a road that is coated with a layer of asphalt or other bituminous material.","answer_b":"I\u2019m far from an expert, but decided to look this up a bit. At first, I expected to it be related to \u201cvia feratta\u201d, italian for iron path. These protected climbing routes built in mountains, notably in the Dolomites in WW1. I was incorrect. The correct, if more pedestrian explanation is that a metaled road is simply a road made of compacted small stones or gravel.<br \/>Source- https:\/\/dictionary.cambridge.org\/dictionary\/english\/metalled","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is clearly the stronger response. Not only is it more comprehensive, but it is clearly more confident. Answer B's response is largely composed of incorrect information that the author only identifies as such at the end of the paragraph.\n\nI place a great deal of value on detail, as I find that it usually correlates with expertise. In this case, Answer A is undoubtedly the superior of the pair, both for its in-depth explanation of the etymology of \"metal road\" as well as for its attentiveness to the term's history."}
{"question":"In an aside in *Eichmann* Arendt casually asserts Heydrich was a mischling. This is...wrong, right?  Is this at all an open question?  Why would she have thought this?","answer_a":"Arendt's assertion that Heydrich was a mischling (of mixed Jewish and non-Jewish descent) is wrong. There is no evidence that Heydrich had any Jewish ancestry, and he was raised as a Catholic. It is unclear why Arendt would have thought Heydrich was a mischling, but it is possible she was confused by his Jewish-sounding surname.","answer_b":"It was a rumor, but never substantiated. It did crop up within Nazi circles by others looking to damage his own standing in the party, but a 1932 investigation determined it was baseless, and as far as I am aware, non-Nazi research in the matter has likewise been fruitless. The basis of it was the last name of his father's step-father, which was Suss. Although \"Jewish-sounding\" Gustav Suss was a) not Jewish b) Bruno Heydrich's step-father not his real father and c) only nine years older than Bruno when he married Bruno's mother (Bruno was in his early 20s at that point).<br \/>So in short it was a rumor premised on impossibilities.<br \/>See: Robert Gerwarth. Hitler's Hangman: The Life of Heydrich.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Both of these answers are strong responses to the question. But while I would find either one to be perfectly acceptable as an answer to an exam question, for example, I think that Answer B is the stronger of the two.\n\nThe reason is essentially that Answer B is the more comprehensive response. While both answers are equally assertive in answering the question -- i.e., no, Arendt was wrong -- Answer A does not provide much more than a short rebuttal in support of the claim (\"Heydrich was raised as a Catholic\"). \n\nAnswer B is much more thorough. Not only does it provide the information lacking from Answer A (when it reads, \"it is unclear why Arendt would have thought...\") by explaining exactly why Nazis (and non-Nazis) thought as Arendt did, but it also gives a much deeper background on Heydrich himself. In the process, it provides another source to confirm its claims. As such, it is the better response."}
{"question":"What's the deal with concubines in Ancient China?  How were they selected?  Were any selected from the common classes or were they generally from upper class families?  Was it shameful or a great honor for your daughter or sister to be selected as a concubine?","answer_a":"In terms of what's the deal, I wrote a bit about [why a monogamous Emperor might not be a practical option](https:\/\/www.reddit.com\/r\/AskHistorians\/comments\/l5b0m4\/were_concubines_mandatory_to_have_in_imperial\/gl44xim\/) but in short, political ties to important families, increasing chances of children, cosmology to reflect Heaven and good medical practice with balancing yin and yang.<br \/>The later Han's selection process was that an officer of the imperial household and a eunuch, accompanied by a physiognomist, toured the capital area. They looked for ladies of virtue, beauty and respectable background (no crimes, magic, medicine, trade, handcraft) of between 13-20 sui. Leading families could either present their daughters to the inspectors or make arrangements to skip that, controllers and Dowagers inserting their own candidates (who just happened to be related). Also not unknown for an Emperor in the civil war when Han Empire collapsed  to spot someone they fancied, marriage via conquest, a \"we are sorry we rebelled, have this lady\"<br \/>In terms of background, the Later Han had background restrictions and any uncertainty, like with the He family who was the first from outside a certain seven families, could lead to rumours. But the Wei dynasty Empresses included a songstress (granted she became Empress after her husband died), an orphan servant (this led to some protest), a carriage maker's daughter (some sneering and protest), one from good background sent as a \"sorry we rebelled\". Policy towards those on the poor families depended on the dynasty, which families they wished to be aligned to, if they wanted to keep a distance from powerful families but there would be people from aristocratic backgrounds.<br \/>I'm unaware of anybody who felt it was shameful for their relative to enter the imperial harem. An ally inside the imperial palaces wasn't a bad thing,  but an Emperor or controller might not be too keen for someone from the greatest families to have someone inside the harem and potentially getting too powerful or influential.<br \/>Sources: Fire Over Luoyang by Rafe De Crespigny<br \/>Empress and Consorts by Robert Cutter and William Cromwell","answer_b":"A concubine was a woman in ancient China who was sexually available to a man other than her husband.  A man could have multiple concubines, but his wife was considered primary.  Concubines were generally selected from among the upper classes, and it was considered a great honor for a woman to be selected as a concubine.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of the two responses, Answer A is by far the better option. Answer B provides little more than a definition with some relevance to the original question rather than an actual response.\n\nAnswer A, on the other hand, goes into lengthy detail about the various criterion through which different generations of imperial leaders selected their concubines. It moves in a straightforward way through the selection process itself -- complete with a few specific examples from several different dynastic periods -- before ruminating on the reasons why a concubine in the royal household could be a beneficial prospect for many families in imperial China. It also provides two additional academic sources to be consulted. All told, it is a very strong response."}
{"question":"Could Frederick Douglass swim?","answer_a":"I think that the best thing to ask about, perhaps, would be *childhood* within the bounds of enslavement. Young enslaved children would often be the playmates of white children, so learning to swim together would not be unusual - and Douglass, elsewhere in the extended quotation, makes clear swimming was something from his *childhood*, describing his swim that *\"Here all my boyish pranks in the front basin of Baltimore were renewed\"*. It was a very interesting dichotomy that existed in those situations, an intermixing both of friendship *and* mastery, so definitely a lot of fodder to write about.","answer_b":"That\u2019s actually very interesting, I was under the impression efforts were made to make sure slaves couldn\u2019t swim as a means of cutting off potential escape routes via rivers or ponds etc. it makes sense it wasn\u2019t black and white (ha, like it ever was)","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A is the better response. Here, as in one of the earlier evaluation tasks above, Answer B seems to be the original poster responding to an answer (again, possibly Answer A) rather than providing an answer of their own. Granted, Answer A also seems to be responding to another poster rather than providing a stand-alone answer of their own. Even so, Option A is the better of the two.\n\nIt should be noted that because Answer A references an \"extended quotation\" that does not appear in the provided responses or question, it's not entirely clear where its evidence is coming from. But in identifying an appropriate historical lens through which to approach the problem -- in this case, childhood -- and by contextualizing Douglass's own experience within the broader experience of enslaved children who swam alongside white children, it is the more nuanced and effective response."}
{"question":"I realize The King\u2019s Man was very much not a historically accurate movie. But there was a trench warfare scene that caught my eye.<br \/>Essentially Germans and English send scouting parties to no man\u2019s land. The two meet and, using sign language, agree that gunfire will mean the end of all of them. They all put down their firearms and proceed to quietly engage in vicious knife\/club fighting. Of course when someone finally breaks down and uses a pistol the trenches on either side erupt with gun fire killing almost all involved parties.<br \/>Any accuracy to this? Quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land.","answer_a":"Shortly, yes . Scouting missions into No Man's Land did happen and were undertaken with stealth and little firearms. Melee weapons such as clubs, hatchets, and sharpened entrancing tools were common place weapons and there is even evidence of spears being used in assaults.  German forces, as well as some Allied units, utilized armor for scouting missions as well. <br \/>In fact, there were entire German squads outfitted with melee weapons and armor that carried out nighttime missions and specialized trench attacks thought the Western Front. Granted, the movie takes liberties with this but the foundation is there. As for the firing at the least sound or a single gunshot--- there are accounts that mention these things happening in both first hand accounts as well as secondary sources. <br \/>A few sources to point you to:<br \/>There are several books that mention this, especially war diaries and secondary sources. Here are a few:<br \/>Keegan, John-- The First World War<br \/>Murray, Nicholas. The Rocky Road to the Great War: The Evolution of Trench Warfare to 1914.<br \/>Ellis, John.  Eye-Deep in Hell \u2013 Life in the Trenches 1914\u20131918<br \/>Johnson, Thomas M., and Fletcher Pratt. The Lost Battalion<br \/>Gudmundsson, Bruce I. Stormtroop Tactics: Innovation in the German Army, 1914-1918<br \/>Lengel, Edward. To Conquer Hell: The Meuse-Argonne, 1918.<br \/>Sheldon, J. The German Army on the Somme: 1914\u20131916. <br \/>Yockelson, Mitchell. Forty-Seven Days: How Pershing's Warriors Came of Age to Defeat at the German Army in World War I<br \/>I wholeheartedly recommend Gudmundsson and Ellis.<br \/>Edited: I had these readily at hand as I used them on as references earlier in my academic life and they currently are on my bookshelf.","answer_b":"There is some accuracy to the idea of quiet hand-to-hand combat in no man\u2019s land. This did happen on occasion, though it was not nearly as common as depicted in the movie. One famous example of this occurred during World War I at the Battle of the Somme. On the first day of the battle, British and German soldiers found themselves in close quarters in no man\u2019s land. They began fighting with whatever they had, including knives, bayonets, and even their bare hands. This continued until nightfall, when both sides retreated to their own trenches.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Although both responses provide pertinent and direct responses to the question, Answer A is the better response.\n\nIn part this is because option A is so much more comprehensive than Option B. The author offers more details in support of its argument that quiet hand-to-hand scenes like the one depicted in the film did indeed happen in real life, albeit not in quite the same way. Additionally, Answer A offers a list of resources where even more relevant information might be found. Although Answer B effectively agrees with Answer A in its answer, it does so with less detail and with less authority.\n\nBut Answer A is also the superior choice for another reason: it accounts for all aspects of the question. By this I mean that it addresses both the incidence of quiet hand-to-hand fighting in the trenches as well as the implied second half of the original question -- namely, whether or not the reason for such engagements had anything to do with the possibility that the sound of gunfire might ignite a bigger, bloodier battle at the drop of a hat. Answer B does not take this second factor into account, and in this sense it is less useful than Answer A."}
{"question":"In the USA, the flag of the Confederacy is often flown proudly. It\u2019s the flag of the states that declared war on the rest of their country, a war they lost. Are there any other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted?","answer_a":"There are no other countries where the flag of the side that lost a civil war is so happily displayed and accepted.","answer_b":"The flag of the II Spanish Republic (red, yellow, and purple horizontal stripes) is quite popular among the Spanish left. The Republic lost the Civil War of 1936-39 that resulted in General Francisco Franco becoming dictator until his death in 1975.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of the two answers, Answer B is the best choice because it is the most factually correct one.\n\nTo be sure, the modern popularity of the Confederate flag in certain Southern states is astounding (although in recent years it has been rejected by many state governments that formerly embraced it). But Answer A's response seems to be more polemical than factual. Answer B, on the other hand, provides a straightforward response that seems, to me at least, to be more in the spirit of the original query. The Flag of the Second Spanish Republic does indeed continue to fly in some Spanish leftist circles. The fact that the two causes (the Confederacy on the one hand, Spanish republicanism on the other) were so ideologically different should not prevent us from appreciating the parallel."}
{"question":"I have read on this subreddit before that it was not unheard of for medieval nuns writing about Jesus and God in very erotic, or seemingly erotic, terms. I was wondering if there is any compiled lists of this medieval thirst poetry or what are some more famous examples of it?","answer_a":"Yes, this was absolutely a thing \u2013 and a reasonably widespread thing at that. Quite a lot of medieval religious women practiced aversion of mystical theology which incorporated a significant erotic element. This tended to revolve around casting Jesus as a bridegroom figure, with whomthe mystic envisioned themselves achieving spiritual, mystical union with. It\u2019s worth noting that it was by no means only women practicing this kind of spiritual experience. Indeed, one of the most prominent examples of this practice is St Bernard of Clairvaux\u2019s (1090-1153) sermons on the Song of Songs, in which he makes use of strongly sexualised imagery to describe union with Christ (and then promptly chastises his audience for their dirty minds \u2013 good consistentapproach there Bernard, A+).<br \/>However, it\u2019s certainly the women who are the most famous for this practice, and it does seem to have been a largely female (andcertainly feminised) form of mysticism. To the best of my knowledge, there\u2019s not a compiled list, simply because there\u2019s a huge amount of the stuff. Poetry is prominent, but there\u2019s also many prose accounts of mystical visions and experiences. There is an (important) caveat that the actual writer of these experiences can differ \u2013 in some cases it is the mystic herself, but in many other it\u2019s a male (usually mendicant) confessor or spiritual director. This can be a very significant filter on the voice that we can access, and can play a part in homogenising or \u201cflattening\u201d the texts.<br \/>In terms of the content, \u201cthirst poetry\u201d is an interesting modern analogy, but it\u2019s important to remember that the erotic content of works like this is (at least theoretically) very much the means to the end, which is complete and total union with the divine. Much mystical theology works in an apophatic way \u2013 this means that God is conceptualised as the ultimate negative, completely unknown and unknowable. Due to this fundamentally unreachable nature, a variety of intellectual strategies are employed to try and bridge this epistemological gap, of which the use of the erotic mode of expression is just one. It\u2019s also worth noting that one could quite equally look at some of this \u201cerotic\u201d language and categorise it as being about violent behaviour instead. See for example Beatrice of Nazareth\u2019s description of love:<br \/>*\u201cMeantime, when love acts in the heart so vehemently and riotously, it becomes so excessive and exuberant in the soul that the soul thinks its heart has been wounded in many and grave ways.... So it seems that its veins are opened and its blood is boiling out, its marrow is withered and its legs are weak, its chest burns and its throat is dry.... And the soul thus feels love acting riotously within it, sparing nothing, uncontrollably seizing and consuming everything within the soul like a devouring fire\u2026\u201d*<br \/>Or Mechthild of Magdeburg\u2019s description of the union with the Godhead:<br \/>*\u201cShe is captured in the first experience*  <br \/>*When God kisses her in sweet union.*  <br \/>*She is assailed with many a holy thought*  <br \/>*That she not waver when she mortifies her flesh.*  <br \/>*She is bound by the power of the Holy Spirit,*  <br \/>*And her bliss is indeed manifold.*  <br \/>*She is slapped with the great powerlessness*  <br \/>*Of not being able to enjoy without interruption eternal light\u201d*<br \/>I\u2019m not saying these works are *about* violence specifically, just that they\u2019re not either uncomplicatedly erotic, or using eroticism as the primary meaning of the text.<br \/>Famous examples \u2013 probably the most widely known these days are Margery Kempe (experiencing something of a renaissance recently) and St Catherine of Siena. Examples do, however, multiply - Dorothea of Montau, Marguerite Porete, Mechthild of Magdeburg, Hadewijch of Antwerp \u2013 the list goes on. I\u2019d suggest that Kempe and St Catherine are probably the easiest to find editions of the complete text, though I\u2019d not swear to that.<br \/>If you want some good reading on the subject, a classic text is C. Walker-Bynum, *Fragmentation and Redemption* (New York: Zone Books, 1992). A broader (and possibly more accessible) work is E. A. Petroff (ed), *Medieval Women\u2019s Visionary Literature*, (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1986). There is a wealth of more recent writing on the topic, but those are good starting points.<br \/>Edit: formatting. Jesus, reddit.","answer_b":"Bynum also covers this in [Holy Feast and Holy Fast: The Religious Significance of Food to Medieval Women (The New Historicism: Studies in Cultural Poetics Book 1)](https:\/\/smile.amazon.com\/dp\/B003AU4J0O\/ref=cm_sw_r_apan_glt_X3X5ZZVNW0XMJP1QQ734) (University of California: 1988). It was my first introduction to it, and contextualises the sort of bodily piety that gave rise to the erotics of God.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of the two answers, Option A is clearly the best.\n\nBoth answers to this question (which, incidentally, aligns very closely with my own scholarship) provide useful, pertinent information. Answer A offers an exhaustive response to the query, including a nuanced discussion of contemporary attitudes toward eroticized religious literature as well as an interesting analysis of its gendered components. (Interestingly, it leaves out St. Teresa of Avila, whom I would argue is the most famous writer in this extensive canon.) It mentions the Song of Songs -- the biblical source material for much of the later material cited elsewhere in the answer -- and provides a list of exemplars, all of which should prove useful to whoever posed the original question. Were I grading this response, I would not hesitate at all in giving it top marks.\n\n Answer B, on the other hand, seems to be providing a follow-up to an earlier answer (again, presumably Answer A). It links a few other resources that are pertinent to the question, but it ultimately pales in comparison to the staggering amount of information provided by Answer A."}
{"question":"What was the special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome?<br \/>I\u2019ve completely forgotten the name and can\u2019t find anything on google","answer_a":"The special name for foreign mercenaries that fought for Rome was \"auxilia.\"","answer_b":"If you mean the non-Roman troops typically led by their own chieftains, those are the *foederati*.<br \/>*The Late Roman Army*, Pat Southern and Karen R Dixon, 1996.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This is a difficult set of answers to evaluate, due in part to the ambiguous phrasing of the original question. From what I understand, both answers are somewhat correct. \n\nThe \"auxilia\" identified by Answer A were non-Roman citizens -- including, but not limited to, foreigners outside of Roman control -- who fought for Rome. Because they were regular members of the Roman army, I am not sure they qualify as \"mercenaries\" as per the original question. As such, I think this is a slightly less correct answer than option B.\n\nOption B identifies the \"foederati\" as the mercenaries in question. Additionally, it cites an academic source in support of its claim, which is always laudable. However, there is again some slippage in the language here: foederati, while foreigners who fought alongside the Roman armies, were bound by formal treaties to aid Rome in times of war. In this sense, they are not really mercenaries -- i.e., not for hire by anyone willing to pay -- so much as autonomous allies. \n\nAgain, I think the problem here is the question, which doesn't provide enough detail to judge entirely one way or another which answer is correct. In the end, I would choose Answer B, but not without reservations."}
{"question":"I was wondering if there was any historical references of a Leader employing a humanitarian crisis as a trap for an invading force in the way that the fictional character Marco Inaros succeeded to do on the Expanse?<br \/>Spoiler for anyone who intends on watching season 6, episode 3 of the Expanse, but I want to find if this was uniquely fictitious or if there\u2019s very real historical events I could also explore. Without needing to see the Expanse, I will give a quick run down of what happened:<br \/>As two navies fight for control in space, Earth vs the Outer Belt \u201cFree Navy,\u201d the Earth force intends to invade the Capitol city of Ceres station. It was important to establish a foothold in future attacks. Upon arrival, the invaders find that the city has been stripped of all food and supplies, and the residents left with only a few weeks of food before they would starve to death. What appeared to be an effortless victory ended as a humanitarian crisis draining resources and entrapping the Earth navy in a PR nightmare instead of decisive victory. <br \/>Has this ever been deployed in real life? Maybe in WWII with the prison camps or possibly (and if it\u2019s against the rules to mention, please skip), but modern times fall of Baghdad in the recent war in Iraq be considered a similar ploy? I doubted anything before mass media or before the value of life became more culturally valued \u2014 I could see barbaric or even crusade or colonizing invaders cutting down local peasants without concern for life.","answer_a":"That\u2019s is super interesting. Definitely not on purpose but had a similar effect. That\u2019s awesome. I\u2019m going to keep the thread open for any other historical references but I do appreciate this and it\u2019s 1 more than I expected to get","answer_b":"I mean, it was definitely not intentional, but as Confederate armies retreated from the banks of the Mississippi, along which some of the South's wealthiest and largest plantations were located, the Union was left guarding an enormous expanse, filled with tens of thousands of freedmen that desperately needed food, medicine and clothing. This created a giant humanitarian crisis that the Union Army was ill-equipped to handle. Their best attempts were to put the freedmen into \"Contraband Camps\" that were rife with disease and unsanitary conditions. Another approach was to lease abandoned and confiscated plantations to Northern factors, who would then employ the freedmen to grow cotton. But in any case the crisis was never completely solved, and it proved to be a constant drain in Union resources and manpower, an embarrassment for the Lincoln administration, and a military factor in that the need to patrol the territory diverted thousands of troops and occasionally had adverse effects in military operations. <br \/>However, this was not an intentional ploy on the part of the Confederates. If they had gotten their way the Union would never have occupied those territories, and the people they enslaved would have remained in their plantations under their control. The freedmen who remained and thus came under Union protection did so not because of the Confederates but in spite of them, as they refused to flee with their masters. Instead, they abandoned the plantations and entered Union lines, or alternately, knowing that the Union would soon take control of the plantation, remained there, defying attempts to \"refugee\" them. Moreover, most of the outrage in reaction of the terrible conditions in the camps came from Northern abolitionists - people the Southerners despised.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B is clearly the better answer of the two. In fact, Answer A seems to be the original poster responding to another answer in the thread (possibly, although not necessarily, Answer B itself). As such, of the two, only the second really qualifies as an answer at all.\n\nAnswer B provides a nuanced, lengthy, and well-written response to the question. Not only does it capably translate the original (fictional) scenario into a real-world historical context, but it also identifies a key difference between the two situations -- namely, that the humanitarian crisis created in the aftermath of the Union invasion of the southern US was not an intentional act of the Confederacy. It is a well-thought-out response, and (judging by Answer A, if the two are indeed related), seems to have been well received.\n\nA brief note: contrary to the chronological trajectory proposed in the original question of a barbaric ancient past giving way to a more civilized present, the concept of \"total war,\" in which anyone and everyone was fair game for wartime violence, is a relatively modern invention. Prior to WWI, such brutality toward civilians would have been treated with shock and horror in most historical contexts, much as it is today."}
{"question":"A medieval household and village produced a lot of ash, what would they do with all of it?<br \/>Ash can be good for gardens but too much ash, there's a lot of lye and salts put into the soil and it will burn up the root systems.","answer_a":"That's what ash-holes (or ash-pits)  are good for:[https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit](https:\/\/www.encyclopedia.com\/education\/dictionaries-thesauruses-pictures-and-press-releases\/ash-hole-ash-pit)<br \/>Archeologists love ashholes as a lot of other stuff got thrown in there as well.   <br \/>Here is an interesting  article, aptly named \"Have you tried the ash pit\" that discusses an ash-pit excavation in Ireland in detail: [https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have\\_you\\_tried\\_the\\_ash\\_pit](https:\/\/www.academia.edu\/42316558\/Have_you_tried_the_ash_pit)","answer_b":"A medieval household might use ash in the garden, but too much ash can be harmful. Ash can contain high levels of lye and salts, which can burn plant roots.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Of the two answers, option A is clearly the better response. It provides a direct and relevant response to the query, complete with links to several articles (including a piece by a practicing academic). Answer B, on the other hand, merely rephrases the original question in the form of a statement. It adds virtually no new information beyond what is presented in the query.\n\nThat said, if the author of Answer A were one of my students, I would press them to provide a more detailed explanation of what an \"ash-pit\" actually is. At present, the linked articles are doing most of the explanatory work -- although, admittedly, this matters little if a reader is solely interested in the answer to the question at hand."}
{"question":"If opposite poles attract, why does the North side of a compass point north instead of south? ","answer_a":"The reason that the north side of a compass points north instead of south is because opposite poles attract each other. The north pole of the compass is attracted to the south pole of the earth, and vice versa. This interaction between the poles is what causes the compass needle to point in a particular direction.","answer_b":"The opposite electrical charges attract. There's nothing that actually matters about how we label them as North and South. For a compass, we've made it so the side that points to the magnetic north pole is labeled as North.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As per answer B, the word opposite electrical charges may seem vague. Why because, in fact the opposite poles North and South are in fact magnetic poles. However answer A is clear in this regard. In defining magnetic poles of the Earth, the Earth's south magnetic pole is near Earth's geographic north. Earth's magnetic north pole is near Earth's geographic south. That's why the north pole of a compass points toward north because that's where Earth's south magnetic pole is located and they attract. This is brought about in answer A.\n That is to be further clarified as follows.  In fact magnetic  compass does not point to the geographic north pole. Essentially,  a magnetic compass points to the earth's magnetic poles, which are not the same as earth's geographic poles. Furthermore, the magnetic pole near earth's geographic north pole is actually the south magnetic pole. When it comes to magnets, opposites attract.  As per answer A, \"The north pole of the compass is attracted to the south pole of the earth, and vice versa. This interaction between the poles is what causes the compass needle to point in a particular direction.\" it is clearly indicated.\nThis fact means that the north end of a magnet in a compass is attracted to the south magnetic pole, which lies close to the geographic north pole. Hypothetically, the magnetic field lines exit from the magnetic North pole and enters from the South magnetic pole.  This is further explained in the website \"https:\/\/www.acs.org\/content\/dam\/acsorg\/education\/resources\/k-8\/science \nactivities\/characteristicsofmaterials\/magnetsmetals\/magnets-point-the-way-science-for-kids.pdf\". It explains that, \"Earth's south magnetic pole is near Earth's geographic north. Earth's magnetic north pole is near Earth's geographic south. That's why the north pole of a compass points toward north because that's where Earth's south magnetic pole is located and they attract.\"\nSo it is not difficult to be separated between two answers A and B"}
{"question":"Why can\u2019t we just build more nuclear power stations to reduce carbon emissions? ","answer_a":"There are several reasons why we can't just build more nuclear power stations to reduce carbon emissions. First, nuclear power is expensive to build and maintain. Second, nuclear power plants produce radioactive waste that is difficult to dispose of safely. Finally, nuclear power plants can be potential targets for terrorist attacks.","answer_b":"Easy enough to do.  Nuclear has an image problem, though.  People don't like them and don't want them around, so permitting is a nightmare.  California just shut down its last nuclear plant, in fact.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A provides reasons one by one. In fact it gives three reasons and answer B fails to provide more. As answer A suggests there are pros and cons of implementing nuclear power. It has advantages over other power sources in terms of carbon emissions. However nuclear power plants pose several threats in terms of implementation. As answer A suggests Nuclear power plants have an instinct disadvantage of producing radioactive leakages. These leakages can be harmful to human beings so generally the plants are located in remote locations from human habitat, Further to answer A, Secondly, there is also a challenge in terms of disposing radioactive material. These radioactive material residues have to be dumped securely without harming the environment. Otherwise it can pollute the environment and can be a source of pollution. In terms of nuclear energy, the cost of energy in terms of units and running cost is less. Nevertheless cost of implementation is too high.\nSince, answer A is straight on this fact, Answer A is selected over answer B"}
{"question":"If atoms never touch each other then how does sound travel between them? There can\u2019t be sounds in space because of the vacuum (no matter). How does sound travel between atoms if they never touch each other? Isn\u2019t there nothing in between the atoms?","answer_a":"There are *forces* between atoms. However it\u2019s extremely difficult to intuitively grasp or explain these forces because they don\u2019t resemble anything else with which we are familiar. <newline>Here\u2019s Nobel Prize-winning physicist Richard Feynman explaining why you can\u2019t really explain such forces to a five year old, or even to an intelligent adult who is not a physicist:<newline>https:\/\/youtu.be\/MO0r930Sn_8","answer_b":"They do push against each other without touching. Like how the same poles of two magnets push against each other without touching. Does that help?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A fails to bring out the explanation. Answer B seems to attempt to speak to the point. But there are deficiencies in answer B also. This is my account to support answer B further. Actually, there will be molecular interaction without touching each other. It is simple to visualize example of air. How sound waves are propagated through air will be an ideal example to visualize how sound waves are propagated through a medium, without atoms being in contact. Actually when sound waves are generated there are compressions and rarefactions that propagate the sound waves through a particular medium. So it is not merely atom to atom, but rather a collection of atoms. Atoms collectively in collaboration produce a region where there is a compression and a rarefaction. In that way, there will be transfer of sound energy. Similarly in other mediums too there will be relative movement of molecule rather than the atom itself.\nActually there will be an electron cloud surrounding an atom too. That will basically behave as an electron cloud. Answer A doesn't provide a comprehensive explanation neither the answer B. But however, given that answer B gives the correct direction for the solution Answer B is chosen to be the better choice."}
{"question":"Where is the universe expanding to? I know this has already been asked, but how \/where is it expanding? If the end of the universe is the end of everything, then how is it getting bigger? What is the area outside of the universe that is being taken over as the universe expands?","answer_a":"There is no agreed-upon answer to this question since there is no agreed-upon model of the universe. Some scientists believe that the universe is infinite and so it is not expanding into anything, while others believe that it is expanding into a higher dimensional space. Some scientists also believe that the universe will eventually stop expanding and start contracting again. There is no definitive answer to this question since there is no definitive model of the universe.","answer_b":"Nothing.   <newline>Because if there was something, it would be part of the universe.   <newline>When they say the universe is expanding, they mean that everything is getting further apart from each other everywhere. Not that there's a not-universe the universe is displacing.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As answer A suggests, and according to website, \"https:\/\/www.discovery.com\/science\/what-are-the-chances-of-life-appearing-on-earth-\" \"The universe is everything, so it isn't expanding into anything. It's just expanding. All of the galaxies in the universe are moving away from each other, and every region of space is being stretched, but there's no center they're expanding from and no outer edge to expand into anything else.\" Answer B leaves a void by simply giving an answer as nothing. \nAlso according to website \"https:\/\/www.theguardian.com\/lifeandstyle\/2021\/apr\/18\/readers-reply-the-universe-is-expanding-but-what-is-it-expanding-into\" \"To say that \u201cthe universe is expanding\u201d because what we can see and observe from our part of it that it looks to be moving away from a certain point sounds to me like hubris.\"\nIn terms of answering this is a tricky question, so answer A provides the hypothesis of some scientists in \"Some scientists believe that the universe is infinite and so it is not expanding into anything, while others believe that it is expanding into a higher dimensional space. Some scientists also believe that the universe will eventually stop expanding and start contracting again. There is no definitive answer to this question since there is no definitive model of the universe.\" But in answer B, \"When they say the universe is expanding, they mean that everything is getting further apart from each other everywhere. Not that there's a not-universe the universe is displacing.\" seems like not a concrete evidence.\nSo answer A is selected over answer B\n"}
{"question":"If the JWST will observe photons of light coming from the creation of the universe, how are we already so far away from the place where it happened? ","answer_a":"This question is based on a common misconception. The Big Bang didn't happen in a specific location, it happened **everywhere**. The idea though is that all *locations* were much closer together in the early universe so all places had basically no distance from each other. As the universe expanded more distance rapidly came into existence; things weren't flying apart moving *through* space, the *space itself* was getting more distant from other locations.<newline>The universe even when very close and dense was still likely infinite in extent.","answer_b":"The JWST will observe photons of light coming from the creation of the universe, but we are already far away from the place where it happened. The universe is expanding, and the further away something is from us, the faster it is moving away from us. So, the photons that the JWST will observe are coming from a time when the universe was much smaller and denser than it is now.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As answer A suggests. and according to website \"https:\/\/skyandtelescope.org\/astronomy-news\/cosmology\/where-was-the-big-bang-located\/#:~:text=Actually%2C%20the%20Big%20Bang%20gave,Bang%20happened%20everywhere%20at%20once.\" ,\" Actually, the Big Bang gave birth not just to matter but to space itself. Space then expanded so the matter in space thinned out. In other words, the Big Bang happened right where you're sitting just as much as anywhere. Here's the short, elevator-speech version: The Big Bang happened everywhere at once.\"\nTherefore as answer \"A\" correctly points out \"The Big Bang didn't happen in a specific location, it happened **everywhere**. The idea though is that all *locations* were much closer together in the early universe so all places had basically no distance from each other. As the universe expanded more distance rapidly came into existence; things weren't flying apart moving *through* space, the *space itself* was getting more distant from other locations\" . In answer B, \"The universe is expanding, and the further away something is from us, the faster it is moving away from us.\" is not clear too.\nIn answer B why we are so far away is not explained. Further to the answer A explanation above are evidences to support the same fact. So answer A chosen to have provided a better explanation."}
{"question":"if theres no gravity in space how do rockets steer\/move? Wouldn't it be hard land perpendicular on the moon? ","answer_a":"They use thrusters, which are tiny \"rocket engines\" (sometimes they just puff gas under pressure) on the sides of the ship.  Gravity actually has little to do with it - it's the lack of air that makes aerodynamic surfaces like ailerons and rudders ineffective.","answer_b":"Rockets are able to steer and move in space because they rely on the force of their engines to propel them in the desired direction. Without gravity, there is nothing to pull them back down to the surface of a planet or moon, so they can continue moving in a straight line indefinitely. This can make landing on a planet or moon tricky, as it can be difficult to judge the correct angle and approach needed to land perpendicular on the surface.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As answer B suggests, Rockets function as non air breathing engines. https:\/\/www.mpoweruk.com\/rockets.htm\nThat is to say, the rockets do not take air from the atmosphere, rather they carry Oxygen inside tanks in the rocket itself. Further, the rockets carry fuel and combust them inside and propel through the thrusters. https:\/\/science.howstuffworks.com\/rocket.htm\nBy changing the direction of the thrusters, according to the conservation of momentum there will be a transfer of momentum from fuel to the rocket. https:\/\/study.com\/academy\/lesson\/rocket-propulsion-definition-principles.html\nBut in answer A the operation rocket engines is not elaborated. As it is explained in answer B, However, it will be difficult to maneuver the rocket on to the surface of the moon in the perpendicular landing. It has to be carefully done. Answer A also fails to explain the second part of the question too.  where as answer B gives overall account for all the parts requested by the question. So preference choice is answer B"}
{"question":"why does water spill when first poured from full pitchers\/carafes? I was pouring my coffee today, and when the carafe is full, the coffee has a tendency to spill or dribble down the outside of the carafe. This isn't an issue when the carafe is less full.","answer_a":"Roughly speaking, water doesn't like air, but does like glass (and some other things).<newline>So as you tip things the water clings to the glass so it touches as little air as possible and as much glass as possible.<newline>But once it gets flowing there is enough of a push to break that.","answer_b":"There are a few reasons why water spills when first poured from full pitchers or carafes. One reason is that when the pitcher or carafe is full, the weight of the water can cause the spout to open slightly, which allows water to drip or spill out. Another reason is that when the container is full, the water level is higher than the spout, so the water has to travel further to reach the spout, which can cause it to spill or dribble out. Finally, when the container is full, the water is also under more pressure, which can cause it to spill or dribble out if the spout is not opened wide enough.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"According to answer A, actually, this has something to do with the \"like\" molecules and the surface tension of water. When water is poured out from a full pitcher\/carafe, then water tends to cling on to the solid. This is highlighted in answer A in simple day to day words. But we know that surface tension forces are weaker molecular bonds. Once water starts to pour out or when liquid is starting to flow faster, there is no more tendency for these molecules to cling on to. Therefore, overcoming these weaker molecular attraction forces, liquid tend to pour rather than dribbling or dripping along the surface.  With respect to the explanation without using many technical terms, Answer A has produced a better explanation compared to Answer B and answer B also seems a bit distracted.\nWhat actually expressed in answer B \"One reason is that when the pitcher or carafe is full, the weight of the water can cause the spout to open slightly, which allows water to drip or spill out\" is not actually clear.\nSo the real explanation is more closer in answer A than answer B, thus answer A is selected to be the better one.\n"}
{"question":"Why when holding a magnifying glass in a certain angle on a sunny day causes things like wood and cotton to burn? ","answer_a":"Sunlight carries with it energy. About a thousand watts per square meter on a good day. A 6-cm magnifying glass takes up about 0.28% of a square meter, so it will be collecting around 2.8 watts of power - that's about a fifth of a small candle. It is concentrated down to a very small area - smaller than a candle flame, and so as far as that small area is concerned, it may as well be held over a flame.","answer_b":"A magnifying glass works by gathering the light from a larger area and focussing it into a smaller area. When using a magnifying glass normally, you're taking the light bouncing off the thing you're looking at and focussing it into your eye-hole.<newline>If you bring a magnifying glass outside on a sunny day, [this happens](https:\/\/i.imgur.com\/sJxraPg.png). All the sunlight (and heat energy) that hits the whole large surface of the magnifying glass gets focused and concentrated to be hitting a MUCH smaller point. So like, if you focus the power onto a spot 1\/100th the size of the glass itself, that spot gets 100x more heat on it than just being in normal sunlight. Also notice you're not creating energy here. The hot spot gets a shadow around it. You're just moving and gathering most of the light that would have hit the circle and redistributing it into a much smaller spot and leaving a shadow around that spot.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Magnifying glass is a convex lens as the answer B suggests. Answer A brings in information relevant to the  same fact quantitatively.. So it is capable of concentrating electromagnetic waves, which are in the form of light and thermal radiation. This concentrated light especially the thermal energy is capable of igniting wood and cotton. Further according to answer B, this is simply because of the thermal energy concentrated by the magnifying glass. This is according to the refraction principle of light waves. However, actually what happens is sunlight incident on the larger area of the magnifying glass is concentrated in to much smaller area called the focal point. Answer B explains this in simple words. It also brings out to the limelight that glass itself is not basically generating heat but a concentrator. So Answer B gives a better explanation overall. Answer A also compares areas accurately which is factually correct \" A 6-cm magnifying glass takes up about 0.28% of a square meter.\" Quantitative approach can be seen in answer A, but answer B has provided a better overall explanation in simple terms."}
{"question":"what causes race cars to sometimes spin out when taking a turn? The only understanding I have is that applying too much throttle can be attributed to this, but how does increasing acceleration lead to a loss of control?","answer_a":"So many things, surface condition, oversteer, understeer, condition of the tyres, cornering speed - bear in mind race cars usually operating on the very edge of grip - with the downforce they provide, so any marginal thing will likely cause it to \u201csnap\u201d and spin","answer_b":"It depends on the type of car why they spun. Front wheel drive cars spin when you close the throttle mid turn. Rear wheel drive cars spin when you go too fast into it or accelerate too soon and all wheel drive cars do both but less often.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As per answer A, Spinning of racing cars on a turn is mainly due to the loss of traction force on the surface of the race track.\" Answer B compares the cars between front wheel and rear wheel cars. But Answer A compares all the factors that can lead to this scenario.\nAccording to answer A, Actually, in a turn, a car negotiates a circular path. When a vehicle is in circular motion, there should be certain parameters that should be conducive, in order to have described a proper circular path. For an example, there should be sufficient force acting towards the center when the car is in a turn, if there is not enough force towards the center car would either slip or skid. If force towards is less then it would tend to slip towards the center. On the contrary, if the car has a greater speed what can be accommodated during a turn,  then the car would tend to skid and jump out of the turn. As such, there is a tendency for the car to lose control if there is a steering input while the car is in a skid or a slip with the combination of brakes. As the answer A explains, there can be more conditions which attribute to this. They can be \"surface condition, oversteer, understeer, condition of the tyres, cornering speed\". According to \"https:\/\/www.roadandtrack.com\/car-culture\/a30913\/how-to-not-spin\/\" there are more conditions given. The provision of the centrifugal force is provided by many factors such as banking or friction force on the race tracks. Conditions of the tyres should also be good in order to prevent spinning of race cars. \nBy bringing about all these factors answer A has provided a better answer than answer B"}
{"question":"Why do heavy objects fall at the same speed as light ones? Shouldn't gravity make objects which mass is greater attract each other more and therefore touch each other more quickly? Or maybe the mass of the Earth is so big that the difference between two objects in perspective is negligible, especially on the very short distance between them and the soil? Not sure... could you explain?","answer_a":"They do attract each other more, heavy objects fall with a greater force than light objects they just fall at the same velocity. The impact of a heavy object when it hits the ground is far greater, but force = mass times acceleration so the greater mass is balanced out by the greater force.","answer_b":"Physics. Terminal velocity is a thing that matters a lot more than it seems. Also weight\/mass while related, are two separate factors out of many factors that affect speed of falling objects. I\u2019m definitely no physics person, but I believe that a heavier object needs more time to get to terminal velocity even though with enough time it will ultimately have a greater pull on it due to being heavier. A smaller object will reach terminal velocity more quickly, but it won\u2019t go as fast. These two things exist on a parabola where there\u2019s a lot of overlap because there\u2019s often not a large enough free fall. Example of physics, an average sized human\u2019s free fall terminal velocity is about 85-90mph, but a streamlined human can get to well over 100, and a human wearing specific clothing\/attire can get even faster in a fall. That\u2019s a variance of 60-70mph ultimately in an object that\u2019s the same mass\/size\/relatively same shape just oriented differently or otherwise affecting drag.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As per answer A,  when the mass of an object increases, there is a difference between the gravitational attraction. But since the height from which the object is falling compared to the mass of the Earth is negligible. So it doesn't make much of a difference. In order this gravitational force to experience a big difference, the height that we consider should be greater. However as mentioned in Answer B it will make a comparatively big difference if we consider the drag force due to air resistance. If the mass of an object is greater, then the air resistance encountered is greater by the heavier object. If the mass of an object is lesser, then the air resistance by the lighter mass is lesser. As answer B suggests \"Terminal velocity is a thing that matters a lot more than it seems. Also weight\/mass while related, are two separate factors out of many factors that affect speed of falling objects.\" terminal velocity is applicable for masses falling under air resistance. Actually as per answer A the factors to be considered are acceleration due to gravity, air resistance and height of falling. Since answer A and B are close calls, in terms of facts answer A is considered to be better."}
{"question":"how does a nuclear reactor and nuclear energy work? How does a nuclear reactor and nuclear energy work?","answer_a":"A nuclear reactor uses radioactive materials as their fuel source. A chain reaction is started where neutrons slam into the other atoms which in turn also shoot off neutrons. But these neutrons are flying away at a high rate of speed, and they need to be slowed down a bit to make them more likely to hit another atom; this is where the moderator comes in. There are a few different things that can do this function, even just water.<newline>To control the reaction so they can make it happen more slowly over time instead of releasing all that insane energy at once, things such as control rods (which instead absorb neutrons instead of just slowing them down) are also put in the reactor.<newline>All this neutron whizzing about breaking other atoms like a cue ball on a pool table creates heat, crazy amounts of heat. This is captured via what is called the primary loop, which is water that is being circulated through the reactor both to help keep it cool and to collect that heat. This then goes to an exchanger where the primary water heats up secondary water (you don't want the primary water which is being exposed to neutron radiation to be outside the containment), and this secondary water gets turned into steam. This is what actually drives the steam turbines.<newline>Tldr: Nuclear reactions are atoms losing pieces that bump into other atoms and make them break up too, this makes shitloads of heat. The heat is collected and used for running a steam turbine.","answer_b":"A nuclear reactor is a device used to initiate and control a nuclear chain reaction. Nuclear reactors are used to generate electricity and to produce plutonium for nuclear weapons. <newline><newline>Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission to generate electricity. In a typical nuclear power plant, uranium fuel is enriched to about 3-5% U-235 and then formed into pellets. These pellets are then placed in fuel rods, which are bundled together to form a fuel assembly. <newline><newline>The fuel assembly is placed in the reactor core, where the nuclear fission reaction takes place. The fission reaction releases heat, which is used to generate steam. The steam turns turbines, which generate electricity. <newline><newline>Nuclear reactors are closely regulated to ensure the safety of the public and the environment. Nuclear power plants must meet strict safety and security regulations.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As answer A explains \" nuclear power plants can be found with radio active materials\" They include enriched uranium, low-level waste, and spent nuclear fuel. Enriched uranium is the fuel for nuclear power plants. In a nuclear reaction, two nuclei or one nucleus and another sub atomic particle collide to form one or more nuclides. In nuclear power plants nuclear fission process is explained. In terms of the comprehensive answer to cover all the required ingredients are provided in answer B. Answer A doesn't exclusively discuss about nuclear energy as a whole. Answer A concentrates more on the nuclear reactions rather than nuclear power and energy. Answer B covers both aspects of nuclear power and nuclear energy.\nFurther adding to Answer B, reactors use uranium for nuclear fuel. The uranium is processed into small ceramic pellets and stacked together into sealed metal tubes called fuel rods. Typically, more than 200 of these rods are bundled together to form a fuel assembly. A reactor core is typically made up of a couple hundred assemblies, depending on power level. (https:\/\/www.energy.gov\/ne\/articles\/nuclear-101-how-does-nuclear-reactor-work). Answer B also accounts for how the generation of power is achieved in a nuclear power plant. Considering these aspects answer B is considered to be the better answer."}
{"question":"How is energy conserved when two forces counteract? If there are 2 forces on the same object, that counteract, the object doesn't move.<br \/>But there was energy released to create these forces. If these forces don't cause anything to move, doesn't it mean that that energy was destroyed?","answer_a":"Applying perfectly opposite forces in a perfectly static and rigid world - doesn't actually expend any energy. The act of applying a force doesn't expend energy - its the act of applying a force over a distance which does.<newline>In the real world, since everything is elastic, the thing you are compressing\/stretching with your forces, plus the structure that the forces are reacting against will act like stiff springs - and this is where the energy gets stored.<newline>For example press your hands together in front of your chest. As you press:<newline>* Some energy gets stored into the squishing of your palms<newline>* Some energy gets stored in the compression of the bones in your forearms<newline>* Some energy gets stored in the tension of your upper arms and the bones across your shoulders<newline>The chances are some energy will be lost to heat, since flesh is unlikely to be a particularly efficient elastic. <newline>Since you don't apply the force over much distance, very little energy is stored. If you put a spring between your hands, now you apply the force over more distance and more energy is stored (which is apparent when you let the spring go!)","answer_b":"Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one type to another. In this case, the energy was converted from potential energy to kinetic energy and then back to potential energy. The object didn't move, so the kinetic energy was quickly converted back to potential energy.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"In this case, there is no energy required as Answer A explains, since there is no movement of the object. \"The act of applying a force doesn't expend energy\". And further answer A adds that \"its the act of applying a force over a distance which does expand energy.\" Therefore since no work is done since there is no movement of the object. \nAnswer B basically, revolves around energy. When it comes to answer A and B in terms of balancing the context of the question, there is solid grounds to provide that answer A has provided a better explanation.\nIn actual terms, although there is energy being exerted to apply a force, there is no work done since there is no movement. In physics principle there is no energy expelled. This is in accordance with principles of physics. Further there will only be work done if there is movement of an object over a distance and then we can consider that there is certain amount of energy associated with it. \nIn overall aspects, answer A provides a better explanation of this particular concept.\n"}
{"question":"Why can\u2019t we dispose of nuclear waste by shooting it into deep space? ","answer_a":"The main reason why we can't dispose of nuclear waste by shooting it into deep space is because it would be incredibly expensive to do so. Additionally, there is no guarantee that the waste would not eventually come back to Earth, potentially causing harm to our planet and its inhabitants.","answer_b":"Cost. Currently to get mass into low earth orbit it costs many thousands of dollars per kg. We don't want to fill low earth orbit with waste so really we need it on at least an earth escape trajectory, and ideally a sun escape. This ramps up the cost even more. Storing nuclear waste is a hassle, but it isn't as expensive or dangerous as launching it into space.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"machine","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"This again a close call between answers A and B. As mentioned in answer A, \"The main reason why we can't dispose of nuclear waste by shooting it into deep space is because it would be incredibly expensive to do so.\". This is again mentioned in answer B. Nuclear waste still has certain amount of radioactivity left in it. Therefore its disposal has to be secured and non harming to the inhabitants. Moreover the process has to be cost effective. In terms of cost incurred in shooting nuclear waste in to sun or space, it is far more costly than that can be afforded. More the weight, higher would be the cost. Therefore it is required to have a mechanism to dump nuclear waste in a manner in which it is not harming to the species. There is an element of danger also associated to it also. Firstly if during launch, there is a misfire or failure there is a risk of falling back to earth. Secondly, during orbiting there can be a hazard of nuclear waste falling back to earth. So considering all those aspects it is not the feasible option. This is mentioned in answer \"A\". \"Additionally, there is no guarantee that the waste would not eventually come back to Earth, potentially causing harm to our planet and its inhabitants.\".  Further reasons are mentioned in answer B as \"We don't want to fill low earth orbit with waste so really we need it on at least an earth escape trajectory, and ideally a sun escape. This ramps up the cost even more. Storing nuclear waste is a hassle, but it isn't as expensive or dangerous as launching it into space.\". Therefore between the two tight calls, between answers A and B, answer B is selected to be the assuming."}
{"question":"what theories are out there about what came before the Big Bang? ","answer_a":"The current model for what happened before the big bang is known as cosmic inflation.<newline>The basic idea is that the Big Bang on its own explains many of the observations made my scientists regarding the structure of the universe. However, what is interesting is that there are several observations that the Big Bang *cannot* explain, such as:<newline>\\- why was the universe \"born\" perfectly flat?<newline>\\- why is the universe the same temperature (up to over 99% accuracy) in all directions when there hasn't been enough time for the temperature of the universe to \"even out\" all the way?<newline>\\- why aren't there various high-energy relics (like magnetic monopoles - a magnet that's only North or South, but *not both*) when the Standard Model (the current frame work of the smallest particles in physics) predicted that such relics should exist as a result of the insanely high energy of the Big Bang?<newline>\\- why did the universe begin with such low entropy (which is a measure of \"disorder\" in a system)? Especially considering the fact that entropy always increases in closed systems?<newline>After the Big Bang model became accepted in the first half of the 1900's, scientists have struggled to answer these questions above according to the framework of the Big Bang.<newline>However, in the '70s and '80s a scientist named Alan Guth came up with a model explains everything the Big Bang did, *and* also explains the unsolved observations not accounted by the Big Bang. This model is known as cosmic inflation, and put simply it is the idea that the energy in the first moments of universe wasn't in particles or radiation, but in the fabric of space itself. So what happened *before* the Big Bang is that the fabric of space itself began to exponentially inflate to an unimaginable degree, and we call the \"Big Bang\" is actually the end of this inflationary period.<newline>So then that begs the question: what happened before the inflationary period? Sadly, no one knows. It is possible that some kind of singularity existed before inflation. It is also possible that inflation never stopped, which would imply the existence of a multiverse. Or it could be that inflations happen cyclically, which implies an eternal universe.<newline>What's really interesting here is that the scientists who figured out and basically proved that inflation came first did this forty years ago. So anyone who still tries to argue that the Big Bang was the first event in the universe is at least forty years outdated.","answer_b":"Tesla said there is a primordial soup and we are being churned in it - that would be the big bang, the start of the churn, so the soup would be there but motionless, or the possibility of all motion, however you want to look at it.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B only considers the Tesla's soup theory. But According to website \"https:\/\/www.buffalo.edu\/news\/releases\/2022\/03\/033.html#:~:text=\u201cInflation%20tells%20us%20that%20the,state%20before%20the%20Big%20Bang.\",  \"In the beginning, the world was empty and cold. Prior to the Big Bang  yes, before the Big Bang  the universe underwent a breathtaking cosmic expansion, doubling in size at least 80 times in a fraction of a second. This rapid inflation, fueled by a mysterious form of energy that permeated empty space itself, left the universe desolate and cold. Only after that did the hot, dense conditions of the Big Bang emerge: As the doubling of the universe ceased, the energy of the vacuum underwent a metamorphosis, transforming into particles of matter and radiation. That metamorphosis flooded space with the superhot plasma of the Big Bang, which forged the primordial elements that went on to make the stars and galaxies we see today.\" This is also given in answer A. \nAccording to website \"https:\/\/www.bbc.com\/future\/article\/20220105-what-existed-before-the-big-bang\", \"In the first moments after the Big Bang, the Universe was a hot soup of particles where space and time was still to properly emerge\". This is as explained in answer B.\nThere are several hypotheses. \nAccording to the website, \"https:\/\/www.space.com\/what-came-before-big-bang.html\", \"In the beginning, there was an infinitely dense, tiny ball of matter. Then, it all went bang, giving rise to the atoms, molecules, stars and galaxies we see today. Or at least, that's what we've been told by physicists for the past several decades. But new theoretical physics research has recently revealed a possible window into the very early universe, showing that it may not be \"very early\" after all. Instead it may be just the latest iteration of a bang-bounce cycle that has been going on for \u2026 well, at least once, and possibly forever.\nOverall these aspects are covered in answer A and it provides a better explanation. Since the question asks about what theories and answer B only narrows down to one theory, answer A is selected to be the better overall answer."}
{"question":"how does a speaker vibrate at multiple frequencies simultaneously to deliver sounds to our ears? I'll try and explain what I mean.. say a song is playing - how do the vocals, drums, guitars etc which all have different frequencies (aka a plate is moving back &amp; forth at a rate to deliver these sound waves) play at the same time? Surely the plate can't vibrate to deliver two or more frequencies at once?","answer_a":"This has been asked many times and the answer is they don\u2019t. If you listen to the song being played live on purely acoustic instruments even though they are being played separately and emitting their own frequencies, what you hear (and by extension, what a microphone captures) at any given time is just ONE frequency that\u2019s the \u201csum\u201d of all the others combined. A speaker is just a reverse microphone.","answer_b":"Imagine an ocean with a consistent wave. It flows up and down, with equal distance between the two waves at any time.<newline>Now imagine I push a larger, shorter wave into this ocean. The two waves will collide, resulting in some new wave pattern. This new wave pattern is a combination of those two waves.<newline>Speakers work similarly. If I combine two soundwaves, I get a new combination wave that sounds different.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"In technical terms ocean waves stated in answer B are transverse waves and sound waves are longitudinal waves. In comparison answer B mentions about ocean waves and it is different to the sound waves in the question. But apart from that  actually the two answers A and B go very close to each other and they provide similar explanations. But answer A is selected to be slightly better in terms of applicability and relevance. Other than that principle explained in answer B is also applicable. Answer B explains \"Now imagine I push a larger, shorter wave into this ocean. The two waves will collide, resulting in some new wave pattern. This new wave pattern is a combination of those two waves. Speakers work similarly. If I combine two soundwaves, I get a new combination wave that sounds different.\" It actually is the combination of the sound waves that is output by the speaker. In answer A,\"  what you hear (and by extension, what a microphone captures) at any given time is just ONE frequency that\u2019s the \u201csum\u201d of all the others combined. A speaker is just a reverse microphone.\"\nActually, the speaker's movement changes as the intensity of the sound waves are changed. So it actually outputs a particular frequency. Not many frequencies at the same time. Further, it cannot provide all the frequencies at the same time. So in terms of technical approach and considering overall accuracy answer A is selected."}
{"question":"How the bodies\/remains from 9\/11 couldn't be found\/are \"just gone\" from a building collapse? ","answer_a":"The most optimal range of a crematorium oven is 1400-1800 degrees Fahrenheit. Temperatures at ground zero were as high as 1377. So, while not optimal, it can still turn a body into dust over weeks (the fires burned for 100 days).","answer_b":"There are a number of potential explanations for why the bodies\/remains from 9\/11 couldn't be found\/are \"just gone\" from a building collapse. One possibility is that the bodies were completely incinerated in the intense heat of the collapse. Another possibility is that the bodies were pulverized by the force of the collapse. Finally, it is also possible that the bodies were buried beneath the rubble and simply couldn't be recovered.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"machine","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer A in this case doesn't provide how temperature is so great in the 9\/11 incidents of the building. Comparatively answer B provides three reasons why it is so. Further, According to the physicists and scientists who attempted to explain the science behind this incident, one of the outstanding and convincing theory was the momentum transfer of aircrafts to the building. It was apparent, even in the visuals the impact of the two aircrafts to the building has transferred huge momentum to the two buildings. Since the kinetic energy possessed by the aircrafts due to hundreds of tons of weight flying at considerable speed  had ultimately transferred to the building in terms of excessive kinetic energy. As a result of which, the kinetic energy had eventually being dissipated in to heat energy which was absorbed by the concrete and metal structure of the building. Due to the heat generated by this kinetic energy transfer and heat dissipated to the structure had resulted in melting of the concrete & metal structure and the building. Therefore, building was collapsed to the ground. Due to the heat generated, impact and demolition of the building to the ground obviously couldn't have safely secured any bodies or remains in tact. According to the website, \"https:\/\/theconversation.com\/9-11-the-controversial-story-of-the-remains-of-the-world-trade-center-167481\"Thousands of tonnes of pulverised concrete, construction debris, cellulose, asbestos, lead and mercury, and fire dioxins increased the risk of kidney, heart, liver and breast cancer among first respondents. Over the next decade, surviving first responders filed workers\u2019 compensation claims and sued NYC for failing to provide proper protective equipment at Ground Zero, until the passing of the 9\/11 Health and Compensation Act, a law created to provide them with medical care.\"\nAbove is an explanation to support the facts given in answer B. Where as answer A provides only a tunnel approach and the answer is narrowed down to one particular aspect answer B has provided broader reasons. So answer B is selected."}
{"question":"If light has no mass, why does it bend in the presence of gravity? ","answer_a":"Light doesn\u2019t have mass in the conventional sense. Einstein theorized, essentially, that there can be no energy without mass. If E= 0, and c^2 is a constant, then m= 0. If m=0, then there is no energy. Light IS energy.<newline>So! Light ACTS like it has mass while in motion, and has no mass when at a halt. The answer you\u2019re looking for is: \ud83e\udd37\u200d\u2642\ufe0f","answer_b":"Light travels in space. Gravity warps space, while light just keeps following wherever it goes. Although gravity doesn't affect photons, it does affect the surface upon which they move.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As answer \"A\" points out clearly, we consider light to be massless only in the classical world. But when it comes to Einstein's theory of relativity, he discusses about photons which comprises light and according to that theory, light is no longer treated to be massless. \"According to Einstein's general theory of relativity, an object passing in front of another bright object would bend the light of the more distant object and cause it to appear to move from its original position\", this is given in the website \"https:\/\/www.abc.net.au\/news\/science\/2017-06-08\/einsteins-impossible-dream-comes true\/8598552#:~:text=According%20to%20Einstein%27s%20general%20theory,move%20from%20its%20original%20position.\"\nIt further adds that \"In this \"gravitational lensing\", the distance apparently travelled by the background object depends on the mass of the object in front, which is curving the light.\nWhile gravitational lensing has been used by astronomers to study the galactic bulge in our Milky Way and other galaxies such as Andromeda and the Magellanic Clouds, this is the first time it has been used to study distant stars\"  So overall we can consider answer A to provide a better explanation.\nAs per answer \"B\", the statement \"Although gravity doesn't affect photons, it does affect the surface upon which they move.\" is questionable due to the fact that it is actually the photon that posses mass. So theoretically photons should be affected by gravity.\nAnswer A provides a better account of the question and seemingly it is a better answer than Answer B"}
{"question":"Where do magnets get their energy to repel other magnets from? Does it last forever? ","answer_a":"Magnetism is like gravity. Lift a ball off the ground, and you're putting in energy. Push two magnets together, and you're putting in energy. Let go, and the energy is released.<newline>Magnetism doesn't last forever, either. It's a result of the poles being aligned. Heat will shake them out of alignment.","answer_b":"A more poetic non-answer is: When I sing, where does the melody come from?","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"Answer B seems to be irrelevant in terms of the context.  When the two magnets are moved close to each other, there is energy associated. When the two magnets are moved close to each other, they repel as a result of magnetic repulsion due to magnetic poles being aligned. Furthermore, magnetism doesn't last forever. It actually diminishes. Magnetic properties of a magnetic material has the diminishing effect. Answer B lacks explanation with respect to the technical content.  \nAccording to website \"https:\/\/www.newscientist.com\/lastword\/mg24732911-800-does-magnetism-decay-over-time\/#:~:text=At%20a%20temperature%20called%20the,cause%20magnetic%20properties%20to%20decay. \" magnetism  has the effects of diminishing. \"At a temperature called the Curie point \u2013 this varies in different metals, but it is around 770\u00b0 in iron \u2013 permanent magnetism is lost altogether. Over a longer period of time, random temperature fluctuations, stray magnetic fields and mechanical movement will cause magnetic properties to decay.\" Answer B fails to give an explanation to this part of the question too.\nAnswer A brings the correct fact with respect to the destruction of magnetic force, \"Magnetism doesn't last forever, either. It's a result of the poles being aligned. Heat will shake them out of alignment.\" "}
{"question":"how can humans survive in the channel tunnel without a pressure suit? But no at that depth in sea? Is this down to the difference in density between air and water or is the air in the channel tunnel pressurised?","answer_a":"The tunnel is only full of air, so going that deep isn't as big of a deal. Water weighs A LOT more, so at that depth there is more weight crushing you.","answer_b":"Did a ctrl+f for pressure on the wikipedia page and found:<newline>> The ventilation system maintains the air pressure in the service tunnel higher than in the rail tunnels, so that in the event of a fire, smoke does not enter the service tunnel from the rail tunnels.<newline>So, yes there is a ventilation system that maintains the air pressure.<newline>> Trains travelling at high speed create piston effect pressure changes that can affect passenger comfort, ventilation systems, tunnel doors, fans and the structure of the trains, and which drag on the trains.[199] Piston relief ducts of 2-metre (7 ft) diameter were chosen to solve the problem, with 4 ducts per kilometre to give close to optimum results.<newline>I found this pretty interesting. They had to install vents because the trains running into the air was causing pressure problems.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":-1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"According to answer \"The tunnel is actually full of air, and it is breathable.\"  Although there is a pressurized ventilation system in the tunnel as per answer B, it is for the purpose of fire fighting. \"The ventilation system maintains the air pressure in the service tunnel higher than in the rail tunnels, so that in the event of a fire, smoke does not enter the service tunnel from the rail tunnels. So, yes there is a ventilation system that maintains the air pressure\". This is actually for the fire fighting. \nAs correctly stated in Answer A\", at sea level the water pressure is enormous due to high density, Because per unit volume, water weighs approximately 800 times greater than the air. Therefore, at that depth according to answer A, no human can survive unless protection measures are taken. This is correctly explained in answer A. \"Water weighs A LOT more, so at that depth there is more weight crushing you\"\nActually according to answer B, it is based on a false assumption that the ventilation system in fact for breathing. it is actually for the fire emergency. So overall answer A provides a better reasoning."}
{"question":"Since force is related to a change in momentum and not necessarily just to a change in velocity, what would be an example where only the mass of a body changes but not its velocity when subjected to a force? ","answer_a":"Momentum is something that exists in mass. If you apply a force, it inherently *must* change an object's velocity (however slightly) and does not change its mass.<newline>To increase the momentum of an object, you must decrease the momentum of another object, as momentum is a conserved quantity. Note that momentum is a vector, and so a \"decrease\" could just as well mean an increase in the opposite direction. The force 'moves' momentum between the two objects.<newline>The force could, instead, move mass between the two objects, but the scenario is a bit odd, since the new mass isn't necessarily the same object but simply travels alongside the object.<newline>For example, imagine a very fast aircraft flying over enemy territory. So fast that it keeps pace with bullets. The enemy fires upon the aircraft, but the bullets can only match speeds with it and will not damage it. The bullets are now traveling with the aircraft, and with some mid-flight gluing they could become a part of it. In this case, the force of firing the bullet is pumping mass to the object without changing its velocity.","answer_b":"My first thought was particle accelerators where the particles are close to the universal speed limit and will therefore not go any faster no matter how much acceleration you give them but will instead increase in mass. However \/u\/LordSpazpatty is completely right with the hovering rocket example as well as the mass is reduced due to fuel being burned by the engines requiring less force to keep the same acceleration.","doc_a":null,"doc_b":null,"answer_a_type":"human","answer_b_type":"human","overall_preference":1,"coherence_preference":null,"factuality_preference":null,"justification":"As per answer A application of force doesn't always necessarily change the velocity of an object. An example would be an object that is stationary on a rough surface would remain stationary until it is acted upon by an overwhelming force. Example given in answer A is a bit obscure also and comparatively in answer B the explanation of rocket seems to be assuming. In answer B the particle accelerator example in modern physics also a good explanation too. Answer B seems to be simple and straight forward in that sense.\nStrictly speaking in terms of physics concepts, the force is the change in momentum per unit time. i.e rate of change in momentum. According to the Newton's second law, the force is equal to the rate of change of momentum. Usually, in classical mechanics, we consider the mass of an object to be constant. Therefore when a force is applied the rate of change of momentum occurs courtesy, the rate of change of velocity. In other words, when a force is applied, a particular object is subjected to acceleration or deceleration. But in certain cases, when the velocity is remained constant, the mass can vary. For an example, in an example of a rocket, due to fuel burn the mass decreases, but the velocity is held constant. This is in accordance with the second law of Newton. According to Answer B, \"with the hovering rocket example as well as the mass is reduced due to fuel being burned by the engines requiring less force to keep the same acceleration\". This may be the case in examples of moving bomber examples also. where the force applied is to maintain the speed of the bomber a constant despite the bombs dropped attributes to reduction of mass.\nHowever in answer B \"However \/u\/LordSpazpatty\" is not clear. it must be a quote."}
